CHAPTER 19: ETHICAL ISSUES May 29, 2023 by Rohit Singh with No Comment Investment Adviser Level 1 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 0 Investment Advisor Level 1 CHAPTER 19: ETHICAL ISSUES 1 / 73 1. What is a key requirement of an adviser’s code of ethics, according to the SEC? a. Daily reporting of all activities to the SEC b. Approval of personal securities transactions c. Distribution and acknowledgment of the code d. Compliance with federal securities laws A key requirement of an adviser’s code of ethics, according to the SEC, is compliance with federal securities laws. 2 / 73 2. According to the Australian Guidelines, what should advisers consider when recommending a financial product to clients? a. Personal preferences and opinions b. Availability of discounts and promotions c. Competitors’ recommendations d. Client’s circumstances and needs When recommending a financial product, advisers should consider the client’s circumstances and needs, ensuring that the recommendation is based on thorough investigation and suitability for the client’s circumstances. 3 / 73 3. Which entity is responsible for handling grievances related to the National Pension System (NPS)? a. NPS Trust b. PFRDA c. Insurance Regulatory Authority d. NSDL e-Governance Infrastructure Limited The NPS Trust is responsible for handling grievances related to the National Pension System (NPS) 4 / 73 4. Which complaints fall under the purview of other regulatory bodies and are not dealt with by SEBI? a. Complaints related to listed companies b. Complaints related to trading members c. All of the above d. Complaints related to unlisted companies Complaints related to unlisted companies, listed companies, or trading members fall under the purview of other regulatory bodies and are not dealt with by SEBI. 5 / 73 5. What is the maximum time limit for the resolution of a grievance as per the guidelines/instructions? a. 60 days b. 120 days c. 30 days d. 90 days 6 / 73 6. How can ethical dilemmas be resolved? a. Through deeper analysis of the situation b. By maximizing personal gains c. By ignoring ethical principles d. By promoting complex financial products Ethical dilemmas can be resolved through a deeper analysis of the situation, which can lead to a clear course of action. 7 / 73 7. What is the role of investment advisers in ensuring ethical conduct? a. Enforcing laws and regulations b. Preventing illegal acts by clients c. Providing after-sales service to clients d. Giving advice on financial matters Investment advisers provide advice on financial matters and have a responsibility to ensure ethical conduct in their dealings with clients. 8 / 73 8. Who is responsible for conducting the compliance audit for investment advisers on a yearly basis? a. Securities and Exchange Commission (SE b. Practising Chartered Accountant c. Chief Compliance Officer (CCO) d. Global regulators A compliance audit for investment advisers is required to be conducted by a Practising Chartered Accountant on a yearly basis. 9 / 73 9. Which principle forms the foundation of fiduciary responsibility for investment advisers? a. Focusing on short-term gains b. Providing generic advice to all clients c. Maximizing personal profits d. Acting in the best interest of clients The foundation of fiduciary responsibility for investment advisers is acting in the best interest of their clients. They must prioritize the clients’ interests and ensure their well-being when making any decisions. 10 / 73 10. What is one of the requirements for advisers registered with the SEC regarding their code of ethics? a. Distributing the code to clients b. Setting a minimum standard of conduct c. Encouraging personal securities transactions d. Providing financial guarantees One of the requirements for advisers registered with the SEC is that their code of ethics should set forth a minimum standard of conduct for all supervised persons. 11 / 73 11. What is the role of SEBI in the grievance redressal process? a. Confirming the complaint falls within its purview b. Resolving the complaint directly c. Initiating a court process against the intermediary d. Forwarding the complaint to the concerned entity SEBI examines the complaint to confirm that it falls within its purview and then forwards the complaint to the concerned entity. The entity is required to respond with an Action Taken Report (ATR) within 30 days. 12 / 73 12. Which entity is appointed by the RBI to address complaints related to banking services? a. Designated Stock Exchange (DSE) b. Compliance officer of the bank c. Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) d. Banking Ombudsman The Banking Ombudsman is appointed by the RBI to address complaints related to banking services. 13 / 73 13. Why is trust important in the relationship between an investment adviser and a client? a. Trust helps attract clients who demand unethical practices b. Trust leads to higher profitability for the adviser c. Trust is legally required in financial transactions d. Trust allows the adviser to get required information for giving advice Trust is important as it allows the adviser to gain the required information to provide the best advice to the client. 14 / 73 14. What is the purpose of the grievance redressal system for investment advisers mandated by SEBI? a. To display the details of the Compliance officer b. To lodge grievances with SEBI through SCORES c. To ensure compliance with regulatory guidelines d. To facilitate communication with the CEO/Partner The purpose of the grievance redressal system for investment advisers mandated by SEBI is to provide a mechanism for clients to lodge their grievances with SEBI through the SCORES system if they are not satisfied with the response of the intermediary. 15 / 73 15. What should advisers do regarding conflicts and compliance factors, according to the SEC? a. Delegate conflict resolution to clients b. Identify and address the risks c. Ignore conflicts and compliance factors d. Disclose all conflicts of interest Advisers registered with the SEC should adopt and implement written policies to identify conflicts and other compliance factors creating risk and then address these risks. 16 / 73 16. What is churning in the advisory business? a. Focusing on client needs b. Educating clients about risks c. Frequent switching of products for higher commissions d. Providing after-sales service to clients Churning refers to the practice of frequent switching from one product to another to increase earnings from commissions. 17 / 73 17. Why is ethical conduct important in business? a. To attract clients demanding unethical practices b. To avoid legal problems c. To earn the respect of society d. To maximize profits Ethical conduct in business helps to earn the respect of society and maintain a good reputation. 18 / 73 18. How do ethical principles differ from legal behavior? a. Ethical principles are legally binding b. Ethical behavior is determined by regulators c. Legal behavior is determined by societal norms d. Ethical principles encompass what is morally right, beyond what is legally required Ethical principles go beyond what is legally required and encompass what is morally right. 19 / 73 19. Who can a complainant approach if the insurance company fails to resolve a grievance within 2 weeks? a. Insurance Regulatory Authority b. Insurance Ombudsman c. Zonal Manager d. Branch Manager If the complaint is not resolved within 2 weeks, the complainant can approach the Insurance Ombudsman for further assistance and resolution. 20 / 73 20. What type of grievances can be addressed through the Investor Services Centre (IS of the stock exchange? a. Grievances related to listed companies b. Grievances related to trading members c. Grievances related to the dematerialization d. All of the above The Investor Services Centre (IS of the stock exchange can address grievances related to trading members or listed companies, among others. 21 / 73 21. If a policyholder is not satisfied with the resolution provided by the insurer, what is the next course of action? a. Approach a lawyer b. Contact the regulatory authority c. File a police report d. Seek relief from the Insurance Ombudsman If the policyholder is not satisfied, they can seek relief from the Insurance Ombudsman for further resolution. 22 / 73 22. Which entity provides an opportunity for both parties to present their case and tries to broker a settlement? a. Investor Grievance Resolution Panel (IGRP) b. SCORES system c. Compliance officer of the intermediary d. Board of Trustees of the mutual fund The Investor Grievance Resolution Panel (IGRP) provides an opportunity for both parties to present their case and attempts to broker a settlement in case the complaint is not resolved to the investor’s satisfaction. 23 / 73 23. What obligation does an investment adviser have in terms of disclosure? a. Disclosing only positive aspects of investments b. Avoiding disclosure to protect business interests c. Partial disclosure to maintain client trust d. Full and accurate disclosure of all relevant facts An investment adviser has an obligation to make full and accurate disclosure of all relevant facts to the client. Omitting or withholding information may mislead the client, and conflicts of interest should also be disclosed to maintain trust and faith. 24 / 73 24. What should be the focus of a financial intermediary for successful achievement of financial goals? a. Company’s profitability b. Achieving sales targets c. Client’s needs and interests d. Personal goals and ambitions The financial intermediary should focus on understanding and fulfilling the needs of the client, rather than being driven by personal interests or sales targets. 25 / 73 25. What should be the basis for providing advice as an investment adviser? a. Recommendations from other advisers b. Objective evaluation of client-specific conditions c. Past performance of investment products d. Personal financial gain The basis for providing advice as an investment adviser should be an objective evaluation of client-specific conditions. The advice should be tailored to the individual client’s requirements and not influenced by factors that benefit the adviser. 26 / 73 26. What information does the Securities and Exchange Commission (SE require registered advisers to disclose to clients? a. Information about competitors b. Information about global regulations c. Information about investment performance d. Information about financial condition The SEC requires registered advisers to disclose information about their financial condition that would impair their ability to meet contractual commitments to clients. 27 / 73 27. What is one of the wrong practices mentioned in the passage? a. Failing to disclose risks to clients b. Educating investors about available products c. Providing poor after-sales service d. Frequent switching of investment products One of the wrong practices mentioned is frequent switching from one product to another to increase earnings from commissions, also known as churning. This practice should be avoided by investment advisors. 28 / 73 28. Which of the following is NOT a fundamental ethical principle? a. Profitability b. Fairness c. Respect for others d. Honesty The fundamental ethical principles include honesty, fairness, and respect for others. Profitability is a business objective, not an ethical principle. 29 / 73 29. What needs to be considered when initiating the judicial process for grievance resolution? a. Response time of the intermediary b. Time limit provided in the law of limitation c. Severity of the complaint d. Investor’s trading history When initiating the judicial process for grievance resolution, the time limit provided in the law of limitation needs to be considered. 30 / 73 30. Which online mechanism set up by SEBI deals with complaints related to all products and entities regulated by it? a. IGRP b. SCORES c. Compliance officer d. ISC SCORES is the online mechanism set up by SEBI that deals with complaints related to all products and entities regulated by SEBI, including complaints against companies, investment companies, intermediaries, and service providers. 31 / 73 31. What are some common problems in the advisory business? a. Poor after-sales service b. Lack of understanding client needs c. All of the above d. Misrepresentation of product risks All of the mentioned problems are common in the advisory business. 32 / 73 32. What is the purpose of the ‘best interest standard’ in Australia? a. Promoting competition among financial advisers b. Facilitating easy access to financial products c. Ensuring advisers act in the client’s best interests d. Guaranteeing high investment returns The ‘best interest standard’ in Australia ensures that advisers act in the client’s best interests and consider their relevant circumstances when providing advice. 33 / 73 33. What is the role of a Practising Chartered Accountant in conducting the compliance audit? a. To provide investment advice b. To ensure compliance with regulatory requirements c. To identify potential clients d. To assess the investment performance The role of a Practising Chartered Accountant in conducting the compliance audit is to ensure compliance with regulatory requirements and identify any material audit observations. 34 / 73 34. What should an investment adviser prioritize over personal earnings? a. Achieving personal targets b. Manipulating market prices c. Client’s financial well-being d. Promoting complex financial products An investment adviser should prioritize the client’s financial well-being over personal earnings. 35 / 73 35. Which role does a financial intermediary play in the Indian financial market? a. Providing legal advice to issuers b. Generating profits for investment companies c. Mobilizing resources for projects d. Assisting investors with tax planning A financial intermediary helps the issuer in mobilizing resources for development/implementation of projects or investment in the capital market. 36 / 73 36. Why is it important to educate investors about risks? a. To manipulate market prices b. To increase earnings from commissions c. To build trust with clients d. To avoid legal consequences Educating investors about risks is important to build trust and ensure transparency in client-adviser relationships. 37 / 73 37. What is one of the main problems in the advisory business highlighted in the passage? a. Insufficient regulatory oversight b. Lack of understanding of financial products c. Inadequate marketing efforts d. Inaccurate reporting of investment performance One of the main problems in the advisory business is the advisor’s lack of understanding of the financial products they are selling, including the risks involved and suitability for the client. This issue can be addressed by explaining the product features to the client and ensuring their understanding before making an investment. 38 / 73 38. What principles guide the Securities Appellate Tribunal (SAT) in its procedures? a. Indian Penal Code b. Principles of natural justice c. Code of Civil Procedure d. SEBI Act The SAT is guided by the principles of natural justice in its procedures, as stated in Section 15U of the SEBI Act. 39 / 73 39. What is the time limit for filing an appeal with the SAT? a. 90 days b. 60 days c. 30 days d. 45 days An appeal should be filed within 45 days from the date of receiving the order made by SEBI, the adjudicating officer, IRDAI, or PFRDA. 40 / 73 40. What penalties can be imposed in Australia for violating the conditions of competence, honesty, integrity, and fairness? a. Mandatory training programs b. Warning letters c. Monetary fines d. Bans and disqualification Violating the conditions of competence, honesty, integrity, and fairness in Australia can result in penalties such as bans and disqualification from acting as an adviser. 41 / 73 41. Which types of complaints are not addressed in SCORES? a. Allegations without supporting documents b. Seeking guidance/explanation c. All of the above d. Incomplete or non-specific complaints SCORES does not address incomplete or non-specific complaints, allegations without supporting documents, or complaints seeking guidance or explanations. 42 / 73 42. What is the key aspect to consider before making investments? a. Risk-return profile, liquidity, and safety b. Indicative or assured returns c. Market rumors and advertisements d. Availability of gifts and incentives Before making investments, it is crucial to consider the risk-return profile, liquidity, and safety aspects. Investments should align with the investor’s risk appetite and investment goals rather than being influenced by promises of high or assured returns, incentives, or market rumors. 43 / 73 43. What powers does the SAT have for discharging its functions under the SEBI Act? a. Powers of an appellate court b. Powers of a civil court c. Powers of an executive authority d. Powers of a criminal court The SAT has the same powers as a civil court under the code of civil procedure while trying a suit, as mentioned in the SEBI Act. 44 / 73 44. What is the role of the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI)? a. All of the above b. To set minimum standards of banking practice and benchmarks in customer service c. To act as an independent autonomous watchdog d. To ensure fair treatment in dealings with banks The role of the Banking Codes and Standards Board of India (BCSBI) is to act as an independent autonomous watchdog, set minimum standards of banking practice and benchmarks in customer service, and ensure fair treatment in dealings with banks. 45 / 73 45. How can misrepresentation of product risks be addressed? a. Ensuring transparency and educating clients b. Maximizing personal commissions c. Providing poor after-sales service d. Promoting complex financial products Misrepresentation of product risks can be addressed by ensuring transparency and educating clients about the risks involved. 46 / 73 46. What is the first recourse for certain categories of complaints against listed companies? a. Banking Ombudsman b. Designated Stock Exchange (DSE) c. Stock exchanges d. SCORES platform Stock exchanges are the first recourse for certain categories of complaints against listed companies. 47 / 73 47. What is the purpose of the grievance redressal system in banking? a. To provide prompt redressal of customer complaints b. To minimize customer grievances c. All of the above d. To ensure fair treatment in dealings with banks The purpose of the grievance redressal system in banking is to minimize customer grievances, ensure fair treatment in dealings with banks, and provide prompt redressal of customer complaints. 48 / 73 48. What is one of the requirements for investment advisers registered with the SEC regarding their advisory fees? a. Hiding fees from clients b. Offering discounted fees for new clients c. Charging fees based on profit sharing d. Providing transparent fee disclosure One of the requirements for investment advisers registered with the SEC is providing transparent fee disclosure to clients. 49 / 73 49. What types of complaints can be referred to the Banking Ombudsman? a. Disputes related to interest and fees b. Complaints against Non-banking Finance Companies (NBF c. All of the above d. Issues related to ATM cards, debit cards, and credit cards Disputes related to interest and fees, issues related to ATM cards, debit cards, and credit cards, and complaints against Non-banking Finance Companies (NBF can be referred to the Banking Ombudsman. 50 / 73 50. What should investors avoid in their transactions? a. Taking decisions based on repeated messages b. Dealing with unregistered entities c. Making payments through banking channels d. Relying on stock tips Investors should avoid dealing with unregistered entities to protect their interests and financial security. They should only rely on advice from registered investment advisers and not make decisions based on stock tips or messages. 51 / 73 51. Why is it important for investment advisers to be ethical role models? a. To maximize profits b. To avoid legal consequences c. To attract clients who demand unethical practices d. To inspire trust and confidence in their clients Investment advisers need to be ethical role models to inspire trust and confidence in their clients. 52 / 73 52. What should be the primary focus of a financial intermediary? a. Serving the needs of clients b. Achieving personal targets c. Promoting complex financial products d. Maximizing earnings through commissions The primary focus of a financial intermediary should be on serving the needs of clients. 53 / 73 53. How long does an Insurance Ombudsman have to make a recommendation after receiving a complaint? a. 1 day b. 1 week c. 3 months d. 1 month An Insurance Ombudsman must make a recommendation within one month of receiving a complaint. 54 / 73 54. How can policyholders register complaints with IRDAI? a. Online through IGMS b. Via social media c. By mail d. Through an insurance agent Policyholders can register complaints with IRDAI online through its Integrated Grievance Management System (IGMS). 55 / 73 55. According to the Australian Guidelines, what steps should an adviser take to satisfy the ‘best interests’ standard? a. Identify client’s financial situation b. Investigate the most appropriate products c. Base judgments on personal preferences d. Ignore client’s relevant circumstances According to the Australian Guidelines, an adviser should take steps such as identifying the client’s financial situation, needs, and objectives, investigating the most appropriate products relevant to the client’s circumstances, and basing all judgments on the client’s relevant circumstances to satisfy the ‘best interests’ standard. 56 / 73 56. If the complainant accepts the Ombudsman’s recommendation, what should they do next? a. Notify the regulatory authority b. Inform the insurer c. Request a higher settlement d. File a lawsuit If the complainant accepts the recommendation, they should inform the insurance company to proceed with the recommended settlement. 57 / 73 57. Where can a client lodge their grievances if they are not satisfied with the response of the intermediary? a. Board of Trustees of the mutual fund b. SCORES system c. Investor Services Centre (IS of the exchange d. Arbitration mechanism If a client is not satisfied with the response of the intermediary, they can lodge their grievances with SEBI through the SCORES system. 58 / 73 58. What is the role of a financial intermediary? a. Channelizing domestic savings b. Manipulating market prices c. Ignoring the needs of investors d. Generating maximum profits for themselves The role of a financial intermediary is to channelize domestic savings into various investment vehicles. 59 / 73 59. What should be the guiding principle in resolving ethical dilemmas? a. Promoting complex financial products b. Maximizing personal interests c. Doing the highest amount of good for all involved d. Minimizing effort and responsibility The guiding principle in resolving ethical dilemmas should be to do the highest amount of good for all those involved. 60 / 73 60. What is the impact of ethical behavior on an investment adviser’s reputation? a. It can build a good reputation in the community b. It attracts clients who demand unethical practices c. It can lead to legal problems d. It has no impact on reputation Ethical behavior can help build a good reputation in the community for an investment adviser. 61 / 73 61. Which disputes can be brought to an Insurance Ombudsman? a. Disputes with agents b. Disputes over premiums c. Disputes over claims d. All of the above An Insurance Ombudsman can address disputes related to premiums, agents, and claims, among others. 62 / 73 62. What is an alternative dispute redressal mechanism available to investors apart from approaching the court? a. SCORES system b. Compliance officer of the intermediary c. Arbitration mechanism d. All of the above Apart from approaching the court, investors have the option to utilize the arbitration mechanism as an alternative dispute redressal mechanism. 63 / 73 63. Where should a complaint be filed if it relates to non-repayment of deposits by companies or bonds and debentures issued by unlisted companies? a. SEBI b. IRDAI c. PFRDA d. Ministry of Company Affairs Such complaints can be filed with the Ministry of Company Affairs on its website, as specified for non-repayment of deposits by companies or unlisted bonds and debentures. 64 / 73 64. Which authority can be approached for complaints related to the non-repayment of deposits by an NBFC? a. Consumer forum b. Securities Appellate Tribunal c. National Company Law Tribunal d. Ministry of Company Affairs Complaints related to the non-repayment of deposits by an NBFC should be registered with the National Company Law Tribunal (NCLT) or the Consumer forum. 65 / 73 65. When should an insurance company resolve a grievance? a. Within 1 month b. Within 1 week c. Within 2 weeks d. Within 2 days As per the Guidelines for Grievance Redressal by Insurance Companies, an insurance company is required to resolve a grievance within 2 weeks. 66 / 73 66. What is the definition of ethics? a. A marketing strategy b. A set of moral principles that influence behavior c. A financial analysis tool d. A set of laws and regulations Ethics can be defined as a set of moral principles that influence behavior. 67 / 73 67. What happens if a listed company does not redress a complaint within 30 days? a. Complaints are forwarded to the Banking Ombudsman b. Complaints are resolved through mediation c. Complaints are forwarded to Designated Stock Exchange d. Complaints are escalated to the RBI If a listed company does not redress a complaint within 30 days, the direct complaints shall be forwarded to the Designated Stock Exchange (DSE) through the SCORES platform. 68 / 73 68. What is the maximum time allowed for resolving a complaint as per IRDAI’s regulations? a. 7 days b. 60 days c. 15 days d. 30 days IRDAI regulations require complaints to be resolved within 15 days. 69 / 73 69. What can happen if ethical principles are not followed in business? a. Legal consequences can be avoided b. The society will appreciate the actions taken c. Quick benefits and shortcuts can be achieved d. Respect and trust can be lost If ethical principles are not followed, respect and trust can be lost, which can have severe consequences for the business. 70 / 73 70. What should investors insist on before accepting investment advice? a. Investing in market rumors b. High-commission products c. Risk profiling d. Guaranteed returns Investors should insist on their risk profiling being conducted before accepting investment advice. This ensures that the advice is aligned with the investor’s risk tolerance and helps in selecting suitable investment alternatives. 71 / 73 71. What is the role of an Insurance Ombudsman? a. Approve premium rates b. Mediate complaints c. Investigate fraud d. Settle claims The Insurance Ombudsman is responsible for mediating complaints between the complainant and the insurance company and recommending fair settlements. 72 / 73 72. What is the “Client First” principle in ethical conduct for investment advisers? a. Putting the interests of the adviser above the client b. Prioritizing the interests of the client above all else c. Ensuring there is a conflict of interest in client dealings d. Providing after-sales service to clients The “Client First” principle requires investment advisers to prioritize the interests of the client above all else. 73 / 73 73. What is an ethical dilemma? a. A situation with no superior alternative b. A clash between personal and professional values c. A conflict between legality and morality d. A situation without any ethical principles involved An ethical dilemma is a situation where a person has to make a decision between two alternatives, neither of which is superior. Your score is The average score is 0% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz
CHAPTER 18: KEY REGULATIONS May 29, 2023 by Rohit Singh with No Comment Investment Adviser Level 1 0 votes, 0 avg 0 Investment Advisor Level 1 CHAPTER 18: KEY REGULATIONS 1 / 106 1. What does an intermediary need to ensure while rendering service to investors? a. Due skill and diligence, independent professional judgment b. Misrepresentation of information c. Delay disbursal of amounts d. Disclosure of confidential information An intermediary needs to ensure due skill and diligence, exercise independent professional judgment, and not act in collusion with other intermediaries while rendering service to investors. 2 / 106 2. What is the responsibility of an investment adviser regarding the suitability of investment advice? a. All of the above b. Ensuring the advice is appropriate to the client’s risk profile c. Understanding the nature and risks of selected products d. Having a documented process for selecting investments An investment adviser is responsible for ensuring that the investment advice and related investments are appropriate to the client’s risk profile. They should have a documented process for selecting investments based on the client’s investment objectives and financial situation and must understand the nature and risks of the selected products or assets. 3 / 106 3. Which Act establishes a Board to protect the interests of investors in securities and regulate the securities market? a. Companies Act, 2013 b. SEBI Act 1992 c. SEBI Prevention of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations, 2003 d. Securities Contracts Regulation Act (SCRA 1956) The SEBI Act of 1992 establishes a Board to protect the interests of investors in securities and regulate the securities market. 4 / 106 4. What is the net tangible assets requirement for individuals registered as investment advisers under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 2013? a. Not less than fifty lakh rupees b. Not less than five lakh rupees c. Not less than one crore rupees d. Not less than twenty lakh rupees Individuals registered as investment advisers must have net tangible assets of value not less than five lakh rupees. 5 / 106 5. What actions can SEBI take against an investment adviser who fails to comply with regulations or provide false information? a. Penalty as per SEBI regulations b. Suspension of registration c. Warning letter d. No action can be taken If an investment adviser contravenes provisions of the SEBI Act, fails to furnish required information, provides false information, fails to submit returns or reports, does not cooperate in inquiries, inspections, or investigations, fails to resolve complaints, or fails to provide satisfactory replies to SEBI, they can be dealt with in the manner provided under the SEBI (Intermediaries) Regulations, 200 6 / 106 6. Who administers and supervises registered Investment Advisers (IAs) recognized by SEBI? a. Ministry of Finance b. SEBI itself c. Wholly-owned subsidiary of the stock exchange d. Independent regulatory body SEBI recognizes a wholly-owned subsidiary of the stock exchange to administer and supervise registered Investment Advisers (IAs). The subsidiary is responsible for on-site and off-site supervision, grievance redressal, administrative actions, monitoring activities, and reporting to SEBI. 7 / 106 7. Who has the authority to resolve disputes between an investment adviser and their client? a. SEBI b. Distributor c. Arbitration or Ombudsman d. The court of law Any dispute between an investment adviser and their client may be resolved through arbitration or through an Ombudsman authorized or appointed by any regulatory authority as applicable. 8 / 106 8. What is the minimum qualification and experience requirement for persons associated with investment advice under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 2013? a. Professional qualification as provided in clause ( of regulation 7 b. Minimum five years of experience in activities relating to advice in financial products or securities or fund or asset or portfolio management c. Professional qualification as provided in clause ( of regulation 7 and two years of experience in activities relating to advice d. Minimum two years of experience in activities relating to advice in financial products or securities or fund or asset or portfolio management Persons associated with investment advice must have a professional qualification as provided in clause ( of sub-regulation (1) of regulation 7, and a minimum experience of at least two years in activities relating to advice in financial products or securities or fund or asset or portfolio management. 9 / 106 9. Which transactions are regulated under the capital account as per Section 6 of FEMA? a. Investments in foreign securities b. Remittance of capital assets c. Balance sheet items d. All of the above Section 6 of FEMA specifies the capital account transactions that are permissible, including investments in foreign securities, maintenance of foreign currency accounts, and remittance of capital assets. 10 / 106 10. Who can apply for an order of guardianship as per the Guardian and Wards Act? a. Only the relative or friend of the minor b. Person desirous of being the guardian, relative or friend of the minor, Collector, or all of the above c. Only the person desirous of being the guardian d. Only the Collector An order of guardianship can be applied for by the person desirous of being the guardian, relative or friend of the minor, or the Collector. 11 / 106 11. How can an Investment Adviser charge fees for providing investment advice? a. Percentage of the client’s investment value b. All of the above c. Flat monthly fee d. Fixed rate per hour An Investment Adviser can charge fees for providing investment advice in various ways, including a fixed rate per hour, a percentage of the client’s investment value, or a flat monthly fee. 12 / 106 12. What does the Guardian and Wards Act define as a “minor”? a. A person below the age of 25 years b. A person below the age of 16 years c. A person below the age of 21 years d. A person below the age of 18 years The Guardian and Wards Act defines a “minor” as a person below the age of 18 years. 13 / 106 13. What does SEBI Act 1992 regulate in relation to the working of depositories? a. Prohibition of fraudulent and unfair trade practices b. Registration and regulation of mutual funds c. Registration and regulation of depositories d. Levying fees for carrying out the purposes of the Act The SEBI Act 1992 regulates the registration and regulation of depositories. 14 / 106 14. What does Section 12 AA of PMLA require reporting entities to do? a. Maintain enhanced due diligence measures for all transactions b. Verify the identity of clients by Aadhaar authentication c. Report suspicious transactions to the Director d. Comply with the provisions of the Aadhaar Act, 2016 Section 12 AA of PMLA requires reporting entities to verify the identity of clients undertaking specified transactions by authentication under the Aadhaar Act, 2016, and take additional steps to examine ownership, financial position, and record the purpose of the transaction. 15 / 106 15. Which guidelines apply to Investment Advisers operating in an International Financial Services Centre (IFS? a. SEBI guidelines only b. Guidelines issued by the relevant overseas regulator/authority c. Investment Adviser Regulations and IFSC Guidelines d. IFSC Act guidelines Investment Advisers operating in an IFSC must comply with the Investment Adviser Regulations, guidelines, and circulars issued by SEBI. They can provide advisory services only to eligible persons mentioned in the IFSC Guidelines. Residents outside India and non-resident Indians seeking advice must comply with applicable guidelines of relevant overseas regulators/authorities. 16 / 106 16. What is the client-level segregation requirement for an individual investment adviser? a. Should provide distribution services b. Should receive distribution services from other family members c. Should provide advisory services to family members d. Should not provide distribution services An individual investment adviser is not allowed to provide distribution services. They should not provide advice to a client who is receiving distribution services from other family members. 17 / 106 17. When can an intermediary increase charges/fees for its services? a. After receiving complaints from clients/investors b. Without any notice c. At its discretion d. With proper advance notice to clients/investors An intermediary can increase charges/fees for its services, but it should provide proper advance notice to its clients/investors. 18 / 106 18. What is defined as “fraud” under SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003? a. Any act, expression, omission, or concealment inducing another person to deal in securities b. Promising without any intention of performing it c. A wilful misrepresentation of the truth or concealment of material fact d. Wrongful gain or avoidance of any loss Under SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003, fraud is defined as any act, expression, omission, or concealment committed to induce another person or his agent to deal in securities, irrespective of whether there is wrongful gain or avoidance of any loss. It includes various instances such as a wilful misrepresentation of the truth or concealment of material fact, suggesting a fact that is not true, active concealment of a fact, promising without any intention of performing it, and making a representation in a reckless and careless manner. 19 / 106 19. What is the requirement for individuals registered as investment advisers with more than 150 clients in total under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 2013? a. They must have a net worth of not less than fifty lakh rupees b. They must inform SEBI if any information or particulars previously submitted are found to be false or misleading c. They must maintain an arms-length relationship between investment advisory activities and other activities d. They must apply for registration as non-individual investment advisers Individuals registered as investment advisers with more than 150 clients in total must apply for registration as non-individual investment advisers as specified by SEBI. 20 / 106 20. What procedure must an investment adviser follow as specified by SEBI? a. Client Segregation procedure b. Know Your Client procedure c. Net Worth Calculation procedure d. Conflict of Interest procedure An investment adviser must follow the Know Your Client (KY procedure as specified by SEBI. 21 / 106 21. According to Section 3 of the PMLA, which of the following activities are considered offenses of money laundering? a. Concealment, possession, acquisition, and projecting only b. Concealment, possession, acquisition, use, projecting, and claiming as untainted property c. Concealment, possession, acquisition, and use only d. Acquisition, use, projecting, and claiming as untainted property Section 3 of the PMLA states that a person shall be guilty of the offense of money laundering if they are directly or indirectly involved in any process or activity connected with the proceeds of crime, including concealment, possession, acquisition, use, projecting, or claiming it as untainted property. 22 / 106 22. What is one of the general obligations of an investment adviser under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 2013? a. An investment adviser shall not disclose any confidential information about its client without prior permission b. An investment adviser shall enter into transactions on its own account contrary to its advice to clients c. An investment adviser shall act in a fiduciary capacity towards its clients d. An investment adviser shall receive consideration by way of remuneration or compensation from persons other than the client being advised An investment adviser is obligated to act in a fiduciary capacity towards its clients under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 201 23 / 106 23. What is the objective of FEMA? a. To regulate contracts in trade and industry b. To protect the interests of minors and secure their property c. To promote the orderly development and maintenance of the foreign exchange market in India d. To define the general principles and rules governing contracts The objective of FEMA is to promote the orderly development and maintenance of the foreign exchange market in India. 24 / 106 24. What purpose do the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 serve? a. Safeguard investors’ interests b. Promote fair trading practices c. Regulate foreign investments d. Prohibit insider trading The SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015 serve the purpose of prohibiting insider trading and ensuring fair trading practices. 25 / 106 25. Q12: What information and reports must investment advisers furnish to SEBI? a. Investment advisory fees paid by clients b. Information and reports as specified by SEBI c. Monthly transaction details of all clients d. Financial statements for the previous year Investment advisers must furnish information and reports as may be specified by SEBI from time to time. 26 / 106 26. What is the certification requirement for an individual investment adviser or principal officer of a non-individual investment adviser registered under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 2013? a. All of the above b. Certification on financial planning or fund or asset or portfolio management from NISM c. Certification on financial planning or fund or asset or portfolio management from any recognized stock exchange in India d. Certification on financial planning or fund or asset or portfolio management from any organization or institution in India An individual investment adviser or principal officer of a non-individual investment adviser registered under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 2013, must have certification on financial planning or fund or asset or portfolio management. This certification can be obtained from NISM or any other organization or institution or any recognized stock exchange in India, provided it is accredited by NISM. 27 / 106 27. What is the definition of “assets under advice”? a. Aggregate profit generated from investment advice b. Aggregate value of investment advisory fees charged c. Aggregate net asset value of securities and investment products d. Aggregate value of investments made by clients “Assets under advice” refers to the aggregate net asset value of securities and investment products for which the investment adviser has rendered investment advice, irrespective of whether the implementation services are provided by the investment adviser or concluded by the client directly or through other service providers. 28 / 106 28. What is the primary responsibility of an intermediary towards investors/clients? a. Act in collusion with other intermediaries b. Delay disbursal of amounts c. Increase charges/fees without notice d. Protect the interests of investors An intermediary’s primary responsibility is to protect the interests of investors and provide the best possible advice to its clients. 29 / 106 29. What is the duration for which reporting entities are required to maintain records of transactions and related information under PMLA? a. 5 years b. 2 years c. 3 years d. 7 years Reporting entities are required to maintain records of transactions, including information relating to transactions, for a period of five years from the date of the transaction between a client and the reporting entity. 30 / 106 30. What should an investment adviser do in case of any conflict of interest with the investment advisory activities and other activities? a. Enter into transactions on its own account contrary to its advice b. Disclose the conflict of interest to the client c. Act in a fiduciary capacity towards its clients d. Divulge confidential information about the client without prior permission In case of any conflict of interest between investment advisory activities and other activities, an investment adviser should disclose the conflict of interest to the client. 31 / 106 31. What is the definition of a “promissory note” as per Section 4 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881? a. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum of money to the bearer b. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum of money to a certain person c. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional order to pay a certain sum of money to a certain person d. A bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and payable on demand According to Section 4 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a “promissory note” is an instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum of money to a certain person. 32 / 106 32. What is the requirement for redressing client grievances by an investment adviser? a. Prompt redressal b. No requirement for grievance redressal c. Redressal by SEBI d. Redressal through arbitration only An investment adviser is required to promptly redress client grievances. They must have adequate procedures in place for expeditious grievance redressal. 33 / 106 33. Which category of persons, as specified by SEBI, is exempt from the requirement of registration as an investment adviser under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 2013? a. Any other person as may be specified by SEBI b. Members of professional bodies specified by SEBI c. Actuaries providing investment advice d. Principal officers of investment advisers registered under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 2013 SEBI may specify any other person who is exempt from the requirement of registration as an investment adviser under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 201 34 / 106 34. Which act protects the interests of minors and secures their property? a. Guardian and Wards Act b. Indian Majority Act c. Indian Contract Act d. Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEM The Guardian and Wards Act protects the interests of minors and secures their property. 35 / 106 35. What must an investment adviser do if the situation has changed during the fifteen-day period, and they want to enter into a transaction on their own account? a. Notify SEBI of the change in situation b. Provide a revised assessment to the client at least 24 hours in advance c. Divulge confidential information about the client without prior permission d. Enter into the transaction without informing the client If the situation has changed during the fifteen-day period, an investment adviser may enter into a transaction on their own account after providing a revised assessment to the client at least 24 hours in advance. 36 / 106 36. Which act provides the foundation for all contracts in trade and industry in India? a. Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEM b. Indian Majority Act c. Indian Contract Act d. Guardian and Wards Act The Indian Contract Act provides the foundation for all contracts in trade and industry in India. 37 / 106 37. Can an investment adviser act on its own account to sell securities or purchase securities from a client? a. It depends on the type of securities involved b. Only with prior approval from SEBI c. No d. Yes No, an investment adviser cannot act on its own account to sell securities or purchase securities from a client. 38 / 106 38. What are the eligibility criteria for a stock exchange subsidiary to be recognized for administering and supervising IAs? a. Compliance with SEBI regulations, investor satisfaction, and strong financial performance b. Partnership with a banking institution and international accreditation c. 15 years of existence, minimum net worth, nation-wide terminals, and Investor Service Centers (ISCs) in 20 cities d. Minimum net worth, nation-wide terminals, and IFSC registration To be recognized for administering and supervising IAs, a stock exchange subsidiary must meet eligibility criteria, including a minimum of 15 years of existence, a minimum net worth of INR 200 crores, nation-wide terminals, and Investor Service Centers (ISCs) in at least 20 cities. 39 / 106 39. Which Act prohibits fraudulent, unfair, and manipulative trade practices in securities? a. SEBI Prevention of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations, 2003 b. SEBI Act 1992 c. Securities Contracts Regulation Act (SCRA 1956) d. Companies Act, 2013 The SEBI (Prohibition of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices relating to Securities Market) Regulations, 2003 prohibit fraudulent, unfair, and manipulative trade practices in securities. 40 / 106 40. What information should an investment adviser obtain from the client for giving investment advice? a. Risk appetite and liability/borrowing details b. Existing assets and liabilities c. All of the above d. Age and income details An investment adviser should obtain information such as age, investment objective, investment horizon, income details, existing assets and liabilities, risk appetite, and liability/borrowing details from the client for the purpose of giving investment advice. 41 / 106 41. What is the definition of “foreign investment” as per FEMA? a. Investment made by a person resident in India in capital instruments of a foreign company b. Investment made by a person resident in India in capital instruments of an Indian company c. Investment made by a person resident outside India in capital instruments of a foreign company d. Investment made by a person resident outside India in capital instruments of an Indian company or to the capital of an LLP “Foreign investment” refers to investment made by a person resident outside India in capital instruments of an Indian company or to the capital of an LLP. 42 / 106 42. Which Act regulates the business in stock exchanges and other securities markets? a. SEBI Act 1992 b. Companies Act, 2013 c. SEBI Prevention of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations, 2003 d. Securities Contracts Regulation Act (SCRA 1956) The SEBI Act 1992 regulates the business in stock exchanges and other securities markets. 43 / 106 43. What does FATCA stand for? a. Foreign Asset Tax Compliance Act b. Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act c. Financial Asset Tax Compliance Act d. Financial Account Tax Compliance Act FATCA stands for Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act. 44 / 106 44. What should an intermediary ensure regarding disclosures and information provided to clients/investors? a. Disclosure of confidential information b. Adequate, comprehensible, and timely disclosures c. Misleading information d. Exaggerated statements about qualifications or achievements An intermediary should ensure that adequate disclosures are made to clients/investors in a comprehensible and timely manner to enable them to make balanced and informed decisions. It should not provide misleading information or make exaggerated statements about its qualifications or achievements. 45 / 106 45. What does a promissory note, bill of exchange, or cheque need to contain to be considered payable to order? a. It must be expressed to be payable to a particular person or to the bearer b. It must be expressed to be payable to the bearer only c. It must be expressed to be payable to a particular person and not contain words prohibiting transfer d. It must be expressed to be payable to a particular person, but can have words prohibiting transfer A promissory note, bill of exchange, or cheque is payable to order if it is expressed to be payable to a particular person and does not contain words prohibiting transfer. 46 / 106 46. How long should an investment adviser maintain client records? a. 10 years b. 5 years c. 2 years d. 3 years An investment adviser is required to maintain client records, including Know Your Client records, risk profiling and assessment, suitability assessment, copies of agreements, investment advice provided, and rationale for five years in either physical or electronic format. 47 / 106 47. Who can be considered an “insider” according to the SEBI (Prohibition of Insider Trading) Regulations, 2015? a. Any person employed by a listed company b. Any person with substantial shareholdings c. Connected person or person having access to unpublished price sensitive information d. Any person engaged in trading activities An “insider” is defined as any person who is a connected person or is in possession of or has access to unpublished price sensitive information. 48 / 106 48. What is the consequence of an insider trading based on unpublished price sensitive information? a. Undue advantage to insiders and affects market integrity b. Loss of market share and reputation c. Increase in trading volume d. Enhancement of market liquidity Insider trading based on unpublished price sensitive information gives an undue advantage to insiders and affects market integrity. 49 / 106 49. What is the definition of “investment advice”? a. Advice on personal lifestyle and hobbies b. Advice on political and social matters c. Advice relating to investing in, purchasing, selling, or dealing in securities or investment products d. Advice on business strategies and operations “Investment advice” refers to advice relating to investing in, purchasing, selling, or otherwise dealing in securities or investment products, and advice on investment portfolios containing securities or investment products, whether written, oral, or through any other means of communication for the benefit of the client. It also includes financial planning, but excludes advice given through widely available public media. 50 / 106 50. What is one of the conditions that a certificate granted under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 2013, is subject to? a. The investment adviser shall abide by the provisions of the SEBI Act 1992 b. The investment adviser shall maintain an arms-length relationship between its activities as an investment adviser and other activities c. The investment adviser shall not act on its own account to sell or purchase securities or investment products from a client d. The investment adviser shall ensure compliance with the certification and qualification requirements at all times A certificate granted under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 2013, is subject to the condition that the investment adviser shall abide by the provisions of the SEBI Act 199 51 / 106 51. What is the code of conduct requirement for investment advisers? a. Comply with distributor regulations b. Maximize their own profits c. Act honestly, fairly, and in the best interests of clients d. Disclose personal financial information to clients Investment advisers are required to act honestly, fairly, and in the best interests of their clients. This includes diligence, having appropriate resources and procedures, seeking relevant client information, making adequate disclosures, charging fair and reasonable fees, managing conflicts of interest, and complying with regulatory requirements. 52 / 106 52. Who is responsible for the acts or omissions of an intermediary’s employees and agents? a. The intermediary b. The key management personnel c. The clients/investors d. The regulators The intermediary is responsible for the acts or omissions of its employees and agents in respect to the conduct of its business. 53 / 106 53. Who does the term “principal officer” refer to? a. CEO or president of the organization b. Compliance officer of the organization c. Shareholder with majority ownership d. Managing director, designated director, managing partner, executive chairman, or equivalent management body The “principal officer” refers to the managing director, designated director, managing partner, executive chairman of the board, or equivalent management body who is responsible for the overall function of the business and operations of a non-individual investment adviser. 54 / 106 54. What disclosure should an investment adviser make regarding its business? a. All of the above b. Disclose all material information about itself c. Disclose any conflicts of interest d. Disclose holding or position in advised securities An investment adviser should disclose all material information about itself, including its business, disciplinary history, terms and conditions of advisory services, affiliations with other intermediaries, holding or position in advised securities, and any conflicts of interest that may compromise its objectivity or independence. 55 / 106 55. What type of entities are covered under SEBI’s AML/CFT guidelines? a. All entities operating in the securities market b. Banking companies only c. Registered intermediaries only d. Financial institutions only SEBI’s AML/CFT guidelines apply to all registered intermediaries operating in the securities market, including their branches and subsidiaries located abroad. 56 / 106 56. Which of the following professionals is required to have a minimum experience of at least five years in activities relating to advice in financial products or securities or fund or asset or portfolio management to be eligible to be known as an investment adviser? a. All of the above b. Individual investment adviser or principal officer of a non-individual investment adviser c. Fund managers of mutual funds d. Persons associated with investment advice An individual investment adviser or principal officer of a non-individual investment adviser registered as an investment adviser must have a minimum experience of at least five years in activities relating to advice in financial products or securities or fund or asset or portfolio management. 57 / 106 57. Which category of financial institutions are required to maintain and report certain information under FATCA and CRS? a. Depository Institutions b. All of the above c. Custodial Institutions d. Investment Entities Custodial Institutions, Depository Institutions, Investment Entities, and Specified Insurance Companies are the categories of financial institutions that are required to maintain and report certain information under FATCA and CRS. 58 / 106 58. How does the Negotiable Instruments Act define a “bill of exchange”? a. A bill drawn on a specified banker and payable on demand b. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum of money to the bearer c. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional order to pay a certain sum of money to a certain person d. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum of money to a certain person The Negotiable Instruments Act defines a “bill of exchange” as an instrument in writing containing an unconditional order to pay a certain sum of money to a certain person. 59 / 106 59. What does “financial planning” include? a. Marketing and advertising of investment products b. Analysis of clients’ current financial situation, identification of financial goals, and recommending financial strategies c. Legal and regulatory compliance d. Risk management and insurance “Financial planning” includes the analysis of clients’ current financial situation, identification of their financial goals, and developing and recommending financial strategies to realize those goals. 60 / 106 60. How should the risk profile of a client be communicated? a. It is not necessary to communicate the risk profile b. Through a public announcement c. After the completion of the risk assessment d. Before obtaining any client information The risk profile of the client should be communicated to the client after the completion of the risk assessment. 61 / 106 61. What does the SEBI Act 1992 regulate in relation to securities markets? a. Registration and regulation of stock brokers b. Prohibition of insider trading c. Levying fees for carrying out purposes of the Act d. All of the above The SEBI Act 1992 regulates the registration and regulation of stock brokers, prohibition of insider trading, and levying fees for carrying out the purposes of the Act. 62 / 106 62. Which Act prohibits insider trading in securities? a. SEBI Act 1992 b. Securities Contracts Regulation Act (SCRA 1956) c. Companies Act, 2013 d. SEBI Prevention of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations, 2003 The SEBI Act 1992 prohibits insider trading in securities. 63 / 106 63. Who is exempt from the requirement of registration as an investment adviser under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 2013, if they provide investment advice to their clients incidental to their professional service? a. Insurance agents offering investment advice solely in insurance products b. Fund managers of mutual funds c. Advocates, solicitors, or law firms d. Distributors of mutual funds Advocates, solicitors, or law firms providing investment advice to their clients incidental to their legal practice are exempt from the requirement of registration as an investment adviser under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 201 64 / 106 64. How should non-individual investment advisers maintain an arm’s length relationship between their activities as investment advisers and distributors? a. By outsourcing distribution activities b. By sharing resources with the distribution department c. Through a separately identifiable department or division d. By offering integrated advisory and distribution services Non-individual investment advisers should maintain an arm’s length relationship between their activities as investment advisers and distributors by providing advisory services through a separately identifiable department or division. This helps ensure clear segregation between the two functions. 65 / 106 65. Which Act defines and amends the law relating to promissory notes, bills of exchange, and cheques? a. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 b. Common Reporting Standards (CRS) c. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 d. Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATC The Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 defines and amends the law relating to promissory notes, bills of exchange, and cheques. 66 / 106 66. Who is responsible for monitoring the compliance of an investment adviser with regulatory requirements? a. Client b. SEBI c. Distributor d. Compliance officer An investment adviser, whether a body corporate or a partnership firm, must appoint a compliance officer who is responsible for monitoring the compliance of the investment adviser with the requirements of the Act, regulations, notifications, guidelines, and instructions issued by SEBI. 67 / 106 67. Which entities are required to maintain records of documents evidencing the identity of clients and beneficial owners under PMLA? a. All reporting entities b. Intermediaries only c. Financial institutions only d. Banking companies only All reporting entities, including banking companies, financial institutions, intermediaries, and persons carrying on designated businesses or professions, are required to maintain records of documents evidencing the identity of clients and beneficial owners. 68 / 106 68. What should an intermediary ensure when disbursing dividends or interest to clients/investors? a. Delay disbursal b. Increase the amount disbursed c. Request additional documentation d. Prompt disbursal An intermediary should be prompt in disbursing dividends, interests, or any such accrual income received or collected on behalf of its clients/investors. 69 / 106 69. Which of the following persons are exempt from the requirement of registration as an investment adviser under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 2013, if they offer investment advice solely on pension products and are registered with Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority for such activity? a. Distributors of mutual funds b. Insurance agents offering investment advice solely in insurance products c. Pension advisors d. Fund managers of mutual funds Pension advisors who offer investment advice solely on pension products and are registered with the Pension Fund Regulatory and Development Authority for such activity are exempt from the requirement of registration as an investment adviser under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 201 70 / 106 70. What is the purpose of risk profiling in investment advice? a. To determine the client’s willingness to pursue an investment plan b. To identify existing assets and liabilities c. To calculate the investment horizon d. To assess the client’s age and income details Risk profiling is conducted to assess the client’s attitude towards risk, possible loss in the portfolio, and willingness to pursue an investment plan after understanding the underlying risks. 71 / 106 71. Which Act consolidates and amends the laws relating to reorganization and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals? a. Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881 b. Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATC c. Common Reporting Standards (CRS) d. Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 The Insolvency and Bankruptcy Code, 2016 consolidates and amends the laws relating to reorganization and insolvency resolution of corporate persons, partnership firms, and individuals. 72 / 106 72. Who is required to be KYC compliant in the securities markets? a. Only institutional investors b. Only individual investors c. Only non-individual investors d. Both individual and non-individual investors Both individual and non-individual investors who wish to invest in securities markets are required to be KYC compliant. 73 / 106 73. Which act is responsible for consolidating and amending the law relating to foreign exchange, external trade, and payments in India? a. Indian Majority Act b. Indian Contract Act c. Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEM d. Guardian and Wards Act The Foreign Exchange Management Act (FEM is responsible for consolidating and amending the law relating to foreign exchange, external trade, and payments in India. 74 / 106 74. What is the term used for the procedure prescribed by SEBI for identifying and verifying client details? a. KYC Registration Agency b. AML/CFT directives c. Enhanced due diligence d. Proof of Address The term used for the procedure prescribed by SEBI for identifying and verifying client details is KYC (Know Your Client). 75 / 106 75. Q11: What is required in case of a change in control of an investment adviser? a. Prior approval from the client b. Prior approval from SEBI c. Prior approval from the stock exchange d. Prior approval from the Registrar of Companies In case of a change in control of an investment adviser, prior approval from SEBI must be obtained. 76 / 106 76. Who is considered a part of the “family of client” according to the regulations? a. Siblings, grandparents, extended family members b. Friends and acquaintances c. Business partners d. Individual client, dependent spouse, dependent children, dependent parents The “family of client” includes the individual client, dependent spouse, dependent children, and dependent parents. 77 / 106 77. Who is considered a part of the “family of an individual investment adviser”? a. Extended family members b. Business associates, co-workers c. Clients/investors d. Individual investment adviser, spouse, children, parents The “family of an individual investment adviser” includes the individual investment adviser, spouse, children, and parents. 78 / 106 78. What is the maximum penalty for default in case of an investment adviser’s non-compliance with SEBI regulations? a. Rs. 1 lakh per day b. Rs. 1 crore c. Rs. 50 lakhs d. Rs. 10 lakhs According to Regulation 15EB of the SEBI Act 1992, if an investment adviser fails to comply with SEBI regulations or directions, they can be liable for a penalty of not less than Rs. 1 lakh per day of non-compliance, subject to a maximum of Rs. 1 crore. 79 / 106 79. What is the requirement for acting as an investment adviser? a. Having a minimum net worth of ₹1 crore b. Obtaining a certificate of registration from SEBI under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 2013 c. Obtaining a license from the local government d. Completing a degree in finance or economics No person can act as an investment adviser or hold themselves out as an investment adviser unless they have obtained a certificate of registration from SEBI under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 201 The certificate of registration granted by SEBI is valid until it is suspended or canceled by SEBI. 80 / 106 80. What is the definition of “net worth” under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 2013, for non-individual investment advisers? a. The aggregate value of accumulated losses, deferred expenditure, and miscellaneous expenses reduced by net tangible assets b. The aggregate value of paid-up share capital plus free reserves reduced by accumulated losses and deferred expenditure c. The aggregate value of paid-up share capital plus free reserves reduced by accumulated losses and deferred expenditure not written off d. The aggregate value of paid-up share capital plus free reserves reduced by accumulated losses and other specified deductions “Net worth” for non-individual investment advisers is defined as the aggregate value of paid-up share capital plus free reserves (excluding reserves created out of revaluation) reduced by the aggregate value of accumulated losses, deferred expenditure not written off, including miscellaneous expenses not written off, and net worth requirement for other services offered by the advisers in accordance with the applicable rules and regulations. 81 / 106 81. What is the time period during which an investment adviser should not enter into transactions on its own account contrary to its advice given to clients? a. Fifteen days b. Six months c. One month d. Three months An investment adviser should not enter into transactions on its own account that are contrary to its advice given to clients for a period of fifteen days from the day of such advice. 82 / 106 82. What is the requirement for a contract to be lawful under the Indian Contract Act? a. Offer and acceptance, capacity to contract, and consideration b. Free consent, lawful consideration, and capacity to contract c. Intention to create legal relations, free consent, and lawful purpose d. Intent to have legal consequences and lawful consideration For a contract to be lawful under the Indian Contract Act, it must have an intention to create legal relations, free consent of the parties, and a lawful purpose. 83 / 106 83. Who among the following persons is exempt from the requirement of registration as an investment adviser under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 2013? a. A person giving general comments on trends in the financial market b. A distributor of mutual funds providing investment advice incidental to their primary activity c. An insurance agent offering investment advice solely in insurance products d. All of the above Certain categories of persons are exempt from the requirement of registration as an investment adviser. This includes a person who gives general comments in good faith on trends in the financial or securities market, an insurance agent offering investment advice solely in insurance products, and a distributor of mutual funds providing investment advice incidental to their primary activity. 84 / 106 84. Who issues regulations and rules under FEMA? a. Competition Commission of India (CCI) b. Insurance Regulatory and Development Authority (IRDAI) c. Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Government d. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) and the Government have the authority to issue regulations and rules under FEMA. 85 / 106 85. Who bears primary responsibility for maintaining standards of conduct in a registered investment adviser body corporate? a. SEBI b. Senior management c. Compliance officer d. Clients The senior management of a registered investment adviser body corporate bears primary responsibility for ensuring the maintenance of appropriate standards of conduct and adherence to proper procedures by the body corporate. 86 / 106 86. What is the requirement for investment advisers providing implementation services? a. Consideration can be received indirectly b. Implementation services can only be provided through indirect schemes/products c. No consideration should be received at the group or family level d. Implementation fees should be charged Investment advisers providing implementation services should ensure that no consideration, including any commission or referral fees, whether embedded or indirect, is received at the investment adviser’s group or family level. They should provide implementation services to their advisory clients only through direct schemes/products in the securities market. 87 / 106 87. Which qualification is NOT among the minimum qualifications required for an individual investment adviser or principal officer of a non-individual investment adviser to be eligible to be known as an investment adviser under the SEBI (Investment Adviser) Regulations, 2013? a. Post-graduate degree in economics b. Professional qualification by obtaining a CFA Charter from the CFA Institute c. Professional qualification by completing a Post Graduate Program in the Securities Market (Investment Advisory) from NISM d. Post-graduate diploma in finance An individual investment adviser or principal officer of a non-individual investment adviser must have a professional qualification or post-graduate degree or post-graduate diploma (minimum two years in duration) in finance, accountancy, business management, commerce, economics, capital market, banking, insurance, or actuarial science from a recognized university or institution. The option “Post-graduate degree in economics” is not among the mentioned qualifications. 88 / 106 88. Which entity has been granted recognition for administration and supervision of Investment Advisers? a. National Stock Exchange b. Ministry of Finance c. BSE Administration & Supervision Limited d. SEBI BSE Administration & Supervision Limited has been granted recognition for the administration and supervision of Investment Advisers. 89 / 106 89. How can a negotiable instrument be made payable to two or more payees? a. Jointly b. Individually c. Alternately d. Jointly or in the alternative A negotiable instrument may be made payable to two or more payees jointly or in the alternative. 90 / 106 90. Which Act provides regulatory jurisdiction over stock exchanges, contracts in securities, and listing of securities on stock exchanges? a. Securities Contracts Regulation Act (SCRA 1956) b. SEBI Act 1992 c. SEBI Prevention of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations, 2003 d. Companies Act, 2013 The Securities Contracts Regulation Act (SCRA 1956) provides regulatory jurisdiction over stock exchanges, contracts in securities, and listing of securities on stock exchanges. 91 / 106 91. Which Act empowers SEBI to impose penalties and initiate adjudication proceedings against defaulting intermediaries? a. Securities Contracts Regulation Act (SCRA 1956) b. SEBI Act 1992 c. SEBI Prevention of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations, 2003 d. Companies Act, 2013 The SEBI Act 1992 empowers SEBI to impose penalties and initiate adjudication proceedings against intermediaries who default on certain grounds. 92 / 106 92. What is the term used to define a promissory note, bill of exchange, or cheque that is payable either to order or to bearer? a. Negotiable Instrument b. Order Instrument c. Bearer Instrument d. Payable Instrument A “negotiable instrument” is the term used to define a promissory note, bill of exchange, or cheque that is payable either to order or to bearer. 93 / 106 93. What is the definition of a “cheque” as per Section 6 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881? a. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum of money to a certain person b. A bill drawn on a specified banker and payable on demand c. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional order to pay a certain sum of money to a certain person d. An instrument in writing containing an unconditional undertaking to pay a certain sum of money to the bearer As per Section 6 of the Negotiable Instruments Act, 1881, a “cheque” is a bill of exchange drawn on a specified banker and payable on demand. 94 / 106 94. What is the definition of “non-individual” according to the regulations? a. Body corporate, including limited liability partnerships and partnership firms b. Individual investors or clients c. Non-profit organizations d. Government organizations “Non-individual” refers to a body corporate, including a limited liability partnership and a partnership firm. 95 / 106 95. What is the requirement for existing portfolio managers offering only investment advisory services under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 2013? a. They must obtain a separate exemption from the requirement of registration b. They may continue offering investment advisory services without registration c. They must cease offering investment advisory services d. They must apply for registration under the Investment Advisers regulations after the expiry of their current certificate of registration as a portfolio manager Existing portfolio managers offering only investment advisory services may apply for registration under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 2013, after the expiry of their current certificate of registration as a portfolio manager. 96 / 106 96. Who are considered “persons associated with investment advice”? a. Clients or investors of an investment adviser b. Members, partners, officers, directors, employees, or sales staff of an investment adviser c. Competitors of an investment adviser d. Shareholders of an investment adviser “Persons associated with investment advice” refer to any member, partner, officer, director, employee, or sales staff of an investment adviser, including anyone occupying a similar status or performing a similar function, irrespective of the nature of association with the investment adviser, who is engaged in providing investment advisory services to the clients of the investment adviser. 97 / 106 97. What is the meaning of “group” in the context of client-level segregation for non-individual investment advisers? a. An entity related to the investment adviser by ownership or control b. An entity controlled by the investment adviser c. The investment adviser’s immediate family members d. An investment adviser and its subsidiary only In the context of client-level segregation for non-individual investment advisers, “group” refers to an entity related to the investment adviser by ownership or control. It includes entities such as holding companies, subsidiaries, associates, subsidiaries of holding companies, investing companies, and ventures of the company as per the provisions of the Companies Act, 201 98 / 106 98. What is required to conduct a yearly audit for compliance with regulatory requirements? a. Self-declaration of compliance b. No audit is required c. Audit by a qualified external professional d. Internal audit by the adviser’s staff An investment adviser must conduct a yearly audit of compliance with regulatory requirements. The audit should be conducted by a qualified external professional such as a member of the Institute of Chartered Accountants of India or the Institute of Company Secretaries of India, and a report of the audit should be submitted as specified by SEBI. 99 / 106 99. What is the duration for which the information obtained during enhanced due diligence measures should be maintained? a. 1 year b. 10 years c. 3 years d. 5 years The information obtained during enhanced due diligence measures should be maintained for a period of five years from the date of the transaction between a client and the reporting entity. 100 / 106 100. Who is considered an “investment adviser” according to the regulations? a. Any person registered with a stock exchange b. Any person engaged in the business of providing investment advice for consideration c. Any person holding securities or investment products d. Any person involved in trading activities An “investment adviser” is any person who, for consideration, is engaged in the business of providing investment advice to clients or other persons or group of persons. It includes anyone who holds out themselves as an investment adviser, by any name. 101 / 106 101. Which Act regulates intermediaries associated with the securities market? a. Companies Act, 2013 b. SEBI Act 1992 c. SEBI Prevention of Fraudulent and Unfair Trade Practices Regulations, 2003 d. Securities Contracts Regulation Act (SCRA 1956) The SEBI Act 1992 regulates intermediaries associated with the securities market. 102 / 106 102. What is the main objective of the Prevention of Money-Laundering Act, 2002 (PML? a. To combat terrorist financing b. To regulate financial institutions and intermediaries c. To prevent money laundering and provide for confiscation of property derived from it d. To promote international cooperation in financial investigations The main objective of the PMLA is to prevent money laundering and provide for the confiscation of property derived from money laundering activities. 103 / 106 103. What documents are individuals required to provide for KYC compliance? a. Proof of identity and proof of address b. Financial status and occupation details c. Proof of income and tax returns d. Educational qualifications and employment history Individuals are required to provide proof of identity and proof of address for KYC compliance. 104 / 106 104. What standards of service should an intermediary observe in its business conduct? a. Increase charges/fees without notice b. Exaggerated statements about qualifications or achievements c. Disclosure of confidential information d. Integrity, dignity, fairness, ethics, and professionalism An intermediary should observe high standards of integrity, dignity, fairness, ethics, and professionalism in its business conduct. 105 / 106 105. What should be ensured while using risk profiling tools for assessing client risk appetite? a. Questions in the questionnaire are vague and complex b. Tools are used without client consent c. Questionnaire contains leading questions d. Tools are fit for the purpose and limitations are identified When using risk profiling tools, the investment adviser should ensure that the tools are fit for the purpose, limitations are identified and mitigated, and any questions or descriptions in questionnaires used are fair, clear, and not misleading. The questionnaire should not be vague, use double negatives, or contain leading questions. 106 / 106 106. Which category of persons providing investment advice exclusively to clients based out of India is exempt from the requirement of registration under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 2013? a. Persons providing investment advice to Non-Resident Indian or Person of Indian Origin b. Insurance agents offering investment advice solely in insurance products c. Fund managers of mutual funds d. Advocates, solicitors, or law firms providing investment advice incidental to their legal practice Persons providing investment advice exclusively to clients based out of India, such as Non-Resident Indians or Persons of Indian Origin, are exempt from the requirement of registration under the SEBI (Investment Advisers) Regulation, 201 Your score is The average score is 0% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Restart quiz
CHAPTER 17: OPERATIONAL ASPECTS OF INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT May 29, 2023 by Rohit Singh with No Comment Investment Adviser Level 1 0 votes, 0 avg 0 Investment Advisor Level 1 CHAPTER 17: OPERATIONAL ASPECTS OF INVESTMENT MANAGEMENT 1 / 125 1. What are the typical investment objectives of investors? a. High-risk investments with high returns b. Preservation of capital, regular income, and capital appreciation c. Maximum diversification across all asset classes d. Short-term speculative trading Investors typically have objectives such as preservation of capital, regular income, and capital appreciation. These objectives reflect different risk-return-liquidity preferences and time horizons. Some investors prioritize capital preservation and aim for stable returns with low risk, while others seek regular income from their investments. Capital appreciation objectives are focused on achieving long-term growth and higher returns. Investment objectives guide the asset allocation decision and help determine the appropriate mix of asset classes to achieve the desired outcomes. 2 / 125 2. Given a portfolio of stocks, the envelope curve containing the set of best possible combinations is known as the a. SML (Security Market Line) b. CML (Capital Market Line) c. Utility curve d. Efficient portfolio The envelope curve containing the set of best possible combinations of a portfolio is known as the efficient portfolio. It represents the optimal portfolios that offer the highest expected return for a given level of risk or the lowest risk for a given expected return. 3 / 125 3. What does the Cumulative Wealth Relative represent? a. Relative risk measure b. Ending value of one unit of money c. Cumulative return of the portfolio d. Compound annual return The Cumulative Wealth Relative represents the ending value of one unit of money over a period of time. It shows how much one rupee has grown in the given example. 4 / 125 4. What are the costs associated with portfolio rebalancing? a. All of the above b. Transaction costs and tax costs c. Research costs and brokerage costs d. Illiquidity costs and tax costs The costs associated with portfolio rebalancing include transaction costs (e.g., research costs, brokerage costs) and tax costs. 5 / 125 5. How does correlation impact asset allocation decision? a. Investments within the same asset class have high correlation, while different asset classes have low correlation b. Investments within the same asset class have low correlation, and different asset classes have low correlation c. Investments within the same asset class have high correlation, and different asset classes have high correlation d. Investments within the same asset class have low correlation, while different asset classes have high correlation Correlation plays a significant role in asset allocation decisions. Generally, investments within the same asset class have low correlation, meaning their returns are not strongly related. On the other hand, different asset classes tend to have high correlation, indicating a lower level of similarity in their returns. By understanding these correlation relationships, investors can build diversified portfolios by selecting asset classes that have low correlation with each other, aiming to reduce overall portfolio risk and capture potential returns from different sources. 6 / 125 6. Modern Portfolio Theory assumes that investors maximize a. One-period expected utility b. Long-term financial goals c. Market share d. Wealth accumulation Investors aim to maximize their one-period expected utility, considering the potential outcomes and associated risks. 7 / 125 7. How is the Information Ratio calculated? a. Rp / (Stdev (p- – Stdev (p+) b. Rp / Rb c. (Rp – R / Stdev (p- d. (Rp – R / Stdev (p+ The Information Ratio is calculated by dividing the difference between the portfolio return (Rp) and the benchmark return (R by the standard deviation of the difference between the portfolio return and the benchmark return (Stdev (p-). It measures the fund manager’s ability to generate excess returns compared to the benchmark, adjusted for the amount of risk taken. 8 / 125 8. In Modern Portfolio Theory, investors estimate the risk of a portfolio based on a. Variability of expected returns of constituent assets b. Historical returns of the portfolio c