Feel Real Exam 6- NISM-Series-V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification July 8, 2023 by Rohit Singh with No Comment NISM-Series-V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 0 NISM-Series-V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification Feel Real Exam 6- NISM-Series-V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification The number of attempts remaining is 10 1 / 100 1. Which of these funds has the highest risk? A) Money market funds B) Index funds C) Sector funds D) Gilt funds Among the options provided, sector funds have the highest risk. Sector funds focus on investing in stocks of a specific sector of the economy, such as technology, healthcare, or energy. This concentration in a single sector increases the risk as the performance of the fund is dependent on the performance of that particular sector. If the sector underperforms, the fund’s returns are likely to be poor. Therefore, the correct answer is “Sector funds.” 2 / 100 2. Which is the most appropriate measure of evaluating how closely an index fund is tracking its benchmark? A) Total Expense Ratio (TER) B) Treynor ratio C) Tracking error D) Assets Under Management (AUM) The tracking error is the most appropriate measure of evaluating how closely an index fund is tracking its benchmark. It measures the deviation or difference between the returns of the index fund and its benchmark. A lower tracking error indicates a higher level of accuracy in replicating the benchmark performance. 3 / 100 3. Which of these statement(s) is/are FALSE? A) If an investor holds his investments in a debt fund for more than three years, the capital gain will be considered as a long-term capital gain B) Both ‘a’ and ‘b’ are false C) As the purchase and repurchase is done with the mutual fund, the investor does not have to pay any capital gain tax The difference between the purchase price and the selling price of mutual fund units is treated as capital gain and is subject to tax. Long-term capital gains are taxed if the holding period is more than three years for non-equity-oriented funds. 4 / 100 4. _______ is not a fair selling practice by a mutual fund distributor. A) Informing the investor of the various investment options B) Carefully understanding the client’s financial needs C) Giving personalized after-sales service D) Encouraging the churning of investments Encouraging the churning of investments is not a fair selling practice by a mutual fund distributor. Churning refers to the frequent buying and selling of investments with the aim of generating higher commissions for the distributor. It is not in the best interest of the investor and may result in unnecessary costs and taxes. Fair selling practices involve informing the investor of various investment options, understanding their financial needs, and providing personalized after-sales service. Therefore, the correct answer is “Encouraging the churning of investments.” 5 / 100 5. With which agency are the mutual fund distributors registered? A) Association of Mutual Funds in India B) Depositories C) Securities and Exchange Board of India D) Fund Accounting Team Mutual fund distributors are registered with the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), which is the regulatory authority for the securities market in India. Distributors need to comply with SEBI regulations to operate in the mutual fund industry. 6 / 100 6. Which amongst the following is a measure of risk-adjusted returns of a mutual fund scheme? A) Variance B) Sharpe ratio C) Beta D) Standard deviation The Sharpe ratio is a measure of risk-adjusted returns of a mutual fund scheme. It assesses the excess return generated by the scheme per unit of risk taken, considering the risk-free rate of return. A higher Sharpe ratio indicates better risk-adjusted performance. 7 / 100 7. For which of these documents is Time Stamping mandatory? A) Transaction slip for buying additional units B) Both for Application form / transaction slip and payment instrument C) Application form only D) Payment instrument only Time stamping is mandatory for both the application form/transaction slip and the payment instrument in mutual fund transactions. Time stamping ensures that the transactions are accurately recorded with the date and time, providing transparency and preventing any manipulation or backdating of transactions. 8 / 100 8. Which strategy can be used to ensure that a mutual fund scheme is suitable to the investor’s need and situation? A) Indexation B) Dividend Stripping C) Asset Allocation D) Tax harvesting Asset Allocation is a strategy used to ensure that a mutual fund scheme is suitable for an investor’s needs and situation. Asset allocation involves allocating money across various asset categories in line with the investor’s objectives and risk tolerance. Therefore, the correct answer is “Asset Allocation.” 9 / 100 9. In whose beneficial interest is a mutual fund managed? A) Sponsors B) Trustees C) AMC D) Unit holders A mutual fund is managed for the beneficial interest of the unit holders, who are the investors in the fund. 10 / 100 10. Investors have the right to specify up to ________ nominees for their mutual fund investment folios. A) Two B) Three C) One D) Zero Investors have the right to specify up to three nominees for their mutual fund investment folios. Nominees are individuals who would receive the mutual fund units or proceeds in case of the investor’s demise. 11 / 100 11. Which of these statement(s) is/are FALSE with respect to Benchmarks? A) Portfolio concentration is an important factor while selecting a benchmark for an equity mutual fund B) Choice of investment universe is not an important factor while selecting an appropriate benchmark for debt mutual funds A) Only A is false B) Only B is false C) Both A and B are false The false statement is B) “Choice of investment universe is not an important factor while selecting an appropriate benchmark for debt mutual funds.” In reality, the choice of investment universe is an important factor when selecting a benchmark for debt mutual funds. Different debt schemes have different investment mandates, such as government securities, corporate bonds, or money market instruments. The benchmark should reflect the investment universe and characteristics of the specific debt scheme. Therefore, the correct answer is “Only B is false.” 12 / 100 12. The transparency levels in mutual funds are very low. State whether True or False. A) FALSE B) TRUE The transparency levels in mutual funds are generally high. Mutual funds are required to provide regular disclosure of their holdings, performance, expenses, and other important information to investors. 13 / 100 13. What is the tax applicable on the income earned by the mutual fund schemes? A) It is a function of the marginal rate of tax applicable to the respective investor in the mutual fund scheme B) It is a function of the type of income since dividends, short term capital gains and long-term capital gains attract different tax rates C) Income earned by a mutual fund is exempt from taxes D) 10 percent plus surcharge and cess The tax applicable on the income earned by mutual fund schemes is a function of the type of income. Dividends, short-term capital gains, and long-term capital gains attract different tax rates and are taxed as per the provisions of the Income Tax Act applicable for the respective type of income. 14 / 100 14. Calculate the Treynor Ratio from the following data: Return from a mutual fund scheme is 7.5%. The beta is 0.62. The risk-free rate of return is 6%. A) 3.08 B) 2.42 C) 4.77 D) 11.6 The Treynor Ratio is calculated as (Return Earned – Risk-Free Return) / Beta. Calculation: (7.5% – 6%) / 0.62 = 1.5% / 0.62 = 2.42. The Treynor Ratio is a risk premium per unit of risk. Therefore, the correct answer is “2.42.” 15 / 100 15. Mutual fund distributors earn no commission when the investor chooses to invest in “direct” plans. State whether True or False. A) FALSE B) TRUE The statement is false. Mutual fund distributors can earn commissions even when investors choose to invest in “direct” plans. In such cases, the commissions are paid separately by the asset management companies (AMCs) and not deducted from the investor’s investment amount. However, the commission rates may vary between regular plans and direct plans. 16 / 100 16. ‘Once it is finalized, a mutual fund scheme’s benchmark cannot be changed at a later date.’ State whether the statement is True or False. A) FALSE B) TRUE The statement is false. Mutual fund scheme benchmarks can be changed at a later date if the fund house determines that a different benchmark is more appropriate or relevant for evaluating the scheme’s performance. The change in benchmark needs to be communicated to the investors and should be in line with the regulatory guidelines. 17 / 100 17. What minimum percentage of the mutual fund scheme corpus must be invested in equity and related instruments in the case of Equity Linked Savings Schemes (ELSS)? A) 70 percent B) 65 percent C) 80 percent D) 100 percent In the case of Equity Linked Savings Schemes (ELSS), a minimum of 80 percent of the scheme corpus must be invested in equity and related instruments. ELSS funds offer tax benefits under Section 80C of the Income Tax Act, and they have a mandatory lock-in period of three years. 18 / 100 18. Which of these is a physical asset? A) Real estate B) Bank Deposits C) Shares in physical form D) Units by Real Estate investment Trusts Real estate refers to physical property in the form of land and buildings. Bank deposits, units by Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), and shares in physical form are financial assets. 19 / 100 19. An investor invested in scheme A when the scheme’s NAV was Rs. 120 per unit. The investor redeemed the investments at the NAV of Rs. 135. Calculate the simple return. A) 10.00 percent B) 11.11 percent C) 15.00 percent D) 12.50 percent The simple return can be calculated using the formula: (Ending NAV – Beginning NAV) / Beginning NAV. In this case, the simple return would be (135 – 120) / 120 = 15 / 120 = 0.125 or 12.50 percent. 20 / 100 20. At what price are the bonus units issued to the unitholder? A) The bonus units are allotted free of cost B) The price is decided by the AMC in consultation with the trustees C) At the prevailing NAV divided by the bonus ratio D) At the prevailing NAV Bonus units are issued to the unitholders without any cost. The units are given as a bonus to the existing unitholders based on the prevailing Net Asset Value (NAV) of the scheme and the bonus ratio determined by the asset management company (AMC). 21 / 100 21. For an investor to get a quick sense of the level of risk involved in a mutual fund scheme, SEBI suggested a simplified framework known as A) Risk factors B) Investor’s risk profile C) Risk-o-meter D) Fact sheet SEBI has introduced a simplified framework known as the Risk-o-meter for investors to quickly assess the level of risk associated with mutual fund schemes. The Risk-o-meter categorizes mutual fund schemes into different risk levels, such as low, moderately low, moderate, moderately high, and high, based on their underlying risk attributes. This helps investors understand the risk profile of a scheme before investing. 22 / 100 22. When the interest rate in the economy increases, the price of existing bonds A) Decreases B) Increases C) Stays the same D) Fluctuate When the interest rate in the economy increases, the price of existing bonds decreases. This is because higher interest rates make the existing fixed interest payments on bonds less attractive compared to newer bonds with higher yields. 23 / 100 23. indicates how much money can be generated per unit of mutual fund in case the scheme is liquidated. A) Exit load B) Market price C) Asset Under Management D) Net Asset Value The Net Asset Value (NAV) indicates the value per unit of a mutual fund. It represents the net value of the fund’s assets after deducting liabilities and divided by the total number of units. 24 / 100 24. Which of the following scheme categories would be considered the least risky in terms of credit risk? A) Dynamic bond B) Gilt fund C) Corporate bond fund D) Credit risk fund Gilt funds would be considered the least risky in terms of credit risk. Gilt funds predominantly invest in government securities, which are considered to have the lowest credit risk as they are backed by the government’s guarantee. 25 / 100 25. Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) functions does not include which of the following? A) Approving the fund managers which have been appointed by the AMC B) Regulation of Stock Exchanges C) Making regulations for the Mutual Fund industry D) Enforcing compliance of its regulations Approving the fund managers which have been appointed by the AMC 26 / 100 26. Which of the following statements is ‘True’ with respect to celebrity endorsement for mutual funds? A) Celebrities can endorse only NFOs B) SEBI has permitted celebrity endorsement at the industry level for the purpose of increasing the awareness of mutual funds C) SEBI has permitted celebrity endorsements for the promotion of individual mutual fund schemes D) Celebrities can endorse only ongoing mutual fund schemes SEBI has permitted celebrity endorsements for the promotion of individual mutual fund schemes. Celebrities can endorse specific mutual fund schemes to create awareness and attract investors. 27 / 100 27. takes into account all dividends generated from the basket of constituents that make up the index in addition to the capital gains. A) Price return index B) Total return index C) Dividend return index The total return index takes into account all dividends generated from the basket of constituents that make up the index, in addition to the capital gains. It provides a more comprehensive measure of the total return generated by the index, including both price appreciation and dividends received from the index constituents. 28 / 100 28. What is the investment of a constant amount at regular intervals in a mutual fund scheme called? A) Systematic Withdrawal Plan B) Systematic Transfer Plan C) Systematic Investment Plan D) Value Investing The investment of a constant amount at regular intervals in a mutual fund scheme is called a Systematic Investment Plan (SIP). It is considered a good practice to invest regularly, particularly into volatile markets such as equity markets. Therefore, the correct answer is “Systematic Investment Plan.” 29 / 100 29. ______ are close-ended debt funds. A) Dynamic debt funds B) Arbitrage funds C) Fixed maturity plans (FMPs) D) Overnight funds Fixed maturity plans (FMPs) are close-ended debt funds. FMPs have a fixed maturity period and invest in debt securities with a similar maturity profile. These funds are typically launched with a specific investment objective and tenure, providing investors the option to invest for a defined period until maturity. The close-ended structure of FMPs means that investors cannot redeem their units before maturity, offering a predefined investment horizon. 30 / 100 30. Which of the following statements is ‘TRUE’ with respect to the Scheme Information Document (SID) and Statement of Additional Information (SAI)? A) These two documents are prepared in the format prescribed by Association of Mutual Funds in India as part of AMFI’s Best Practices Circular B) These two documents are prepared in the format prescribed by Association of Mutual Funds in India as part of AMFI’s Code of Conduct C) These two documents are prepared in the format prescribed by Securities and Exchange Board of India The Scheme Information Document (SID) and Statement of Additional Information (SAI) are prepared by mutual fund companies in the format prescribed by the Association of Mutual Funds in India (AMFI) as part of its Code of Conduct. These documents ensure uniformity and provide essential information to investors. 31 / 100 31. Whose KYC needs to be completed in case of an application by a minor? A) The guardian B) No KYC is required in case of applications by minors C) Any family member of the minor D) The minor In case of an application by a minor, the KYC (Know-Your-Client) needs to be completed for the guardian. Since the minor is not legally capable of entering into a contract, the guardian acts on behalf of the minor for the investment and the KYC formalities. 32 / 100 32. Whose job is it to track the various corporate actions like a bonus, dividend, or rights issues in companies where the mutual fund scheme has invested? A) Custodian B) Registrar and Transfer Agency C) Auditors of the Asset Management Company D) Unitholders The Registrar and Transfer Agency (RTA) of a mutual fund is responsible for tracking and processing various corporate actions in companies where the mutual fund scheme has invested. 33 / 100 33. What is the real rate of return? A) Return that the investor gets after adjusting inflation B) Return that the investor gets after payment of all expenses C) Return that the investor gets after taxes D) Return that the investor gets after adjusting the risks The real rate of return is the return an investor receives after adjusting for inflation, which gives a more accurate measure of the actual increase in purchasing power. 34 / 100 34. The loss booked from a debt investment of 15 months can be set off against A) Short-term capital loss B) Long-term capital loss C) Short-term capital gain or long-term capital gain D) It cannot be set off A loss from a debt investment held for less than three years is considered a short-term capital loss and can be set off against short-term or long-term capital gains. Long-term capital losses can only be set off against long-term capital gains. 35 / 100 35. In case of capital gains from mutual fund investments, Tax Deduction at Source (TDS) is applicable for: A) Minor through guardian B) All investors, who have invested more than Rs. 5 lacs C) Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) D) TDS is not applicable in case of mutual funds Tax Deduction at Source (TDS) is applicable for Non-Resident Indians (NRIs) in case of capital gains from mutual fund investments. As per the Income Tax Act, TDS is required to be deducted on capital gains earned by NRIs. 36 / 100 36. Which among the following is not a statutory document? A) Scheme Information Document B) Fund factsheet C) Statement of Additional Information D) Key Information Memorandum A fund factsheet is not a statutory document. It is a summary document provided by mutual fund companies to provide concise information about the scheme’s performance, returns, and other relevant data. While it is important for investors, it is not part of the statutory documents required by regulations. 37 / 100 37. Each mutual fund scheme must have a stated investment objective. State whether True or False. A) FALSE B) TRUE Each mutual fund scheme must have a stated investment objective that defines its goals and strategies. This helps investors understand the purpose and focus of the fund. 38 / 100 38. Redemption from which of the following mutual fund schemes would attract Securities Transaction Tax (STT) for an investor? A) Government Securities Fund B) Liquid Fund C) Multi-cap mutual fund D) Overnight Fund Redemption from liquid funds would attract Securities Transaction Tax (STT) for an investor. STT is levied on the sale of units of equity-oriented mutual fund schemes and not on the sale of units of debt-oriented mutual fund schemes like liquid funds. 39 / 100 39. Government securities can be considered to be completely risk-free. State whether True or False. A) FALSE B) TRUE Government securities are considered to be risk-free to a great extent. They are backed by the sovereign guarantee of the government, which reduces the credit risk associated with them. However, they may still have some degree of interest rate risk and inflation risk. 40 / 100 40. are close-ended debt funds. A) Overnight funds B) Fixed maturity plans (FMPs) C) Arbitrage funds D) Dynamic debt funds Fixed maturity plans (FMPs) are close-ended debt funds. FMPs have a fixed maturity period and invest in debt securities with a similar maturity profile. These funds are typically launched with a specific investment objective and tenure, providing investors the option to invest for a defined period until maturity. 41 / 100 41. Passive funds are safe, as the NAV of such funds do not go down even when the respective markets fall. State whether this is True or False. A) FALSE B) TRUE The statement is false. While passive funds, such as index funds or ETFs, aim to replicate the performance of their underlying benchmark, they are not inherently “safe” or immune to market fluctuations. The NAV of passive funds can go down when the respective markets fall, as they reflect the performance of the underlying index or assets. Investors should assess the risks associated with the underlying index and market conditions before investing in passive funds. 42 / 100 42. Whom should the investor approach if his complaint is not resolved by the Asset Management Company (AMC)? A) Company Law Board B) Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) C) Ombudsman D) Custodian If an investor’s complaint is not resolved by the Asset Management Company (AMC), they should approach the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI) for further redressal. SEBI is the regulatory authority that oversees mutual funds and can help address investor grievances. Investors can file their complaint through the SEBI Complaint Redress System (SCORES) for efficient resolution. 43 / 100 43. Passive funds are safe, as the NAV of such funds do not go down even when the respective markets fall. State whether this is True or False. A) TRUE B) FALSE The statement is false. While passive funds, such as index funds or ETFs, aim to replicate the performance of their underlying benchmark, they are not inherently “safe” or immune to market fluctuations. The NAV of passive funds can go down when the respective markets fall, as they reflect the performance of the underlying index or assets. 44 / 100 44. Stamp duty is required to be paid for which of these mutual fund transactions? A) New purchases B) Systematic Investment Plan (SIP) C) Dividend reinvestment D) Systematic Transfer Plan (STP) A) Only A B) A, B and D C) B and D D) A, B, C, and D Stamp duty will be applicable to all transactions pertaining to scheme inflows, including new purchases, systematic investment plans (SIPs), dividend reinvestment, and systematic transfer plans (STPs). Therefore, the correct answer is “A, B, C, and D.” 45 / 100 45. Mutual funds are allowed to charge differential exit loads based on the amount of investment. A) TRUE B) FALSE Mutual funds are allowed to charge differential exit loads based on the amount of investment. The exit load is a fee charged to investors when they redeem or exit the mutual fund scheme. The amount of exit load can vary depending on the duration of investment and the amount being redeemed. 46 / 100 46. The purchasing power of currency changes on account of which of the following? A) Asset allocation B) Compound interest C) Inflation D) Diversification The purchasing power of currency changes due to inflation, which erodes the value of money over time. Asset allocation, compound interest, and diversification are not direct factors affecting purchasing power. 47 / 100 47. In case of mutual fund schemes, dividends can be paid only out of A) Distributable surplus generated by the scheme B) Mark-to-market profits C) Unit capital D) Premium reserve account Dividends in mutual fund schemes can be paid only out of the distributable surplus generated by the scheme. This surplus is the portion of the scheme’s income that is available for distribution to the unit holders after meeting expenses, provisions, and other necessary obligations. 48 / 100 48. ________ is a proper benchmark for a balanced hybrid scheme. A) CRISIL Hybrid 75+25 , Conservative Index B) CRISIL Hybrid 50+50 , Moderate Index C) CRISIL Hybrid 25+75 , Aggressive Index A balanced hybrid scheme should use CRISIL Hybrid 50+50, Moderate Index as its benchmark. The CRISIL Hybrid indices are designed to reflect the risk-return characteristics of different types of hybrid funds. The Moderate Index, with a 50% allocation to equity and 50% allocation to debt, is suitable for balanced hybrid schemes. 49 / 100 49. Once a New Fund Offer closes, an open-ended mutual fund is open for purchases ________. A) By existing investors on the stock exchange platform only B) By both existing and new investors C) By both existing and new investors on the stock exchange platform only D) By existing investors only Once a New Fund Offer (NFO) closes, an open-ended mutual fund is open for purchases by both existingand new investors. After the NFO period, the mutual fund scheme transitions from being a newly launched fund to an ongoing open-ended fund. As an open-ended fund, it remains open for investment by both existing investors who want to increase their holdings and new investors who wish to invest in the scheme for the first time. This provides flexibility for investors to enter the fund at any time after the NFO period. Therefore, the correct answer is “By both existing and new investors.” 50 / 100 50. What is the purpose of ‘credit enhancement’ in case of securitized transactions? A) Generating capital gain B) Payment of higher coupon C) Higher creditworthiness The purpose of credit enhancement in securitized transactions is to achieve higher creditworthiness for the securities. Credit enhancement techniques are employed to improve the credit rating of the securities backed by underlying assets. This provides investors with a higher level of confidence in the credit quality of the securities and enhances their marketability. 51 / 100 51. What is the maximum Total Expense Ratio chargeable in case of index funds? A) Any amount that the AMC may deem appropriate B) It depends as the TER changes in line with the size of the scheme C) 1 percent of the daily net assets D) 1.5 percent of the daily net assets The maximum Total Expense Ratio (TER) chargeable in case of index funds is 1 percent of the daily net assets. The TER represents the total expenses incurred by the mutual fund scheme and is expressed as a percentage of the scheme’s average daily net assets. 52 / 100 52. Segregated portfolio means _________ . A) a portfolio which is kept aside for a ‘rainy day’ or contingency fund B) a portfolio which is created out of debt or money market securities affected by a credit event C) All of the above D) a portfolio which is left after removing poor credit quality papers A segregated portfolio refers to a portfolio that is created out of debt or money market securities affected by a credit event. In case of a credit event, such as a default or downgrade of a security, the mutual fund scheme can segregate the affected securities into a separate portfolio to protect the interests of the unitholders. This helps in isolating the credit risk associated with those securities and prevents it from impacting the overall portfolio. 53 / 100 53. Only individuals are allowed to distribute mutual funds in India. State whether True or False. A) TRUE B) FALSE The statement is false. Both individuals and entities can become mutual fund distributors in India, subject to fulfilling the eligibility criteria and obtaining the necessary registration or certification from the regulatory authorities. 54 / 100 54. For an investor to get a quick sense of the level of risk involved in a mutual fund scheme, SEBI suggested a simplified framework known as A) Fact sheet B) Risk factors C) Risk-o-meter D) Investor’s risk profile SEBI has suggested a simplified framework known as the Risk-o-meter for investors to get a quick sense of the level of risk involved in a mutual fund scheme. The Risk-o-meter categorizes mutual fund schemes into different risk levels (such as low, moderately low, moderate, moderately high, and high) based on their underlying risk attributes. 55 / 100 55. What is negative Alpha? A) It is indicative of over-hedging by the fund manager B) It is indicative of outperformance by the fund manager C) It is indicative of under-hedging by the fund manager D) It is indicative of under-performance by the fund manager Negative Alpha is indicative of under-performance by the fund manager. Alpha measures the difference between a fund’s actual return and its expected return based on its level of risk. A negative alpha suggests that the fund has underperformed its expected return, indicating that the fund manager has not generated excess returns relative to the market or benchmark. Therefore, the correct answer is “It is indicative of under-performance by the fund manager.” 56 / 100 56. Which of the following regulates mutual funds in India? A) Association of Mutual Funds in India B) Board of Trustees of mutual funds C) Securities and Exchange Board of India D) Asset Management Companies Mutual funds in India are regulated by the Securities and Exchange Board of India (SEBI), which is the regulatory authority for the securities market. SEBI formulates rules and regulations to govern the functioning and operations of mutual funds. 57 / 100 57. Which amongst the following categories of mutual funds have a fixed maturity date? A) Close-ended funds B) Interval funds C) Exchange Traded Funds D) Open-ended funds Close-ended funds have a fixed maturity date, after which the fund is liquidated, and investors can redeem their units. Open-ended funds and Exchange Traded Funds (ETFs) do not have a fixed maturity date and can be bought or sold at any time. Interval funds have periodic windows for redemptions. 58 / 100 58. Inflation Risk is also referred as A) Unattempted B) Purchasing Power Risk C) Liquidity Risk D) Credit Risk Inflation risk, also known as purchasing power risk, refers to the risk that inflation will erode the real value of cash flows from an investment. Inflation reduces purchasing power. 59 / 100 59. Which of the following is a measure of fluctuation in periodic returns in an equity mutual fund scheme? A) Modified duration B) Jensen’s Alpha C) Sharpe ratio D) Variance Variance is a measure of fluctuation in periodic returns in an equity mutual fund scheme. It quantifies the dispersion of returns around the average return. A higher variance indicates higher volatility or risk associated with the scheme’s returns. Sharpe ratio, Modified duration, and Jensen’s Alpha are measures used to assess risk-adjusted performance and other aspects of mutual fund schemes. 60 / 100 60. Which of these statements are false?A) While evaluating schemes, the Expense Ratio will matter much more in Debt Funds than Equity mutual funds. B) A mutual fund with a long track record is always better for investments as it would give higher returns in the future C) Ultra short-term debt funds always invest in high credit quality debt securities A) A and B are false B) All A, B, and C are false C) B and C are false D) A and C are false 61 / 100 61. Which among the following schemes would have a lower risk of concentration? A) Multi-cap fund B) Focused fund C) Thematic fund D) Sector fund A multi-cap fund would have a lower risk of concentration compared to focused, thematic, or sector funds. Multi-cap funds have the flexibility to invest across different market capitalizations and sectors, which helps in diversifying the portfolio and reducing concentration risk associated with a specific segment or theme. 62 / 100 62. When an investment is done by a minor, what is rule regarding Know Your Customer (KYC) requirement? A) KYC of the guardian is required B) No KYC is required C) KYC will be required only if the transaction is through a stock exchange D) It depends whether the investment is in equity funds or debt funds An investment made for a minor (less than 18 years) is done through a guardian who has to comply with the KYC and PAN requirements and all other formalities as if the investment was for themselves. Therefore, the correct answer is “KYC of the guardian is required.” 63 / 100 63. Mutual Fund Distributors Certification Examination offered by is required for becoming a mutual fund distributor. A) National Skills Development Corporation B) Securities and Exchange Board of India C) National Institute of Securities Markets D) Association of Mutual Funds in India The Mutual Fund Distributors Certification Examination is offered by the National Institute of Securities Markets (NISM). Clearing this examination is one of the requirements for individuals to become mutual fund distributors in India. 64 / 100 64. Which of the following types of analysis tracks the price and volume data related to trading in the security? A) Situation analysis B) Quantitative analysis C) Fundamental analysis D) Technical analysis Technical analysis tracks the price and volume data related to trading in the security. It uses historical price patterns, charting techniques, and various technical indicators to analyze and predict future price movements of the security. 65 / 100 65. As per the SEBI guidelines, how often should the mutual fund scheme’s portfolio be published? A) Annually B) Never C) Half-yearly D) Monthly As per SEBI guidelines, mutual fund schemes’ portfolios should be published half-yearly. The portfolio disclosure provides transparency and allows investors to understand the composition of the scheme’s investments. 66 / 100 66. In the non-equity-oriented funds, the rate of long-term capital gains tax is A) 20 percent without indexation B) 10 percent without indexation C) 10 percent with indexation D) 20 percent with indexation In the case of non-equity-oriented funds, the rate of long-term capital gains tax is 20 percent with indexation. Indexation refers to adjusting the cost of acquisition for inflation over the holding period, which helps in reducing the tax liability. 67 / 100 67. “Please read the scheme related documents carefully” – which documents does this line refer to? A) Scheme Information Document and audited balance sheet of the Asset Management Company B) Statement of Additional Information and fund fact sheet C) Scheme Information Document and Statement of Additional Information D) Trust deed and Key Information Memorandum The line refers to the Scheme Information Document (SID) and Statement of Additional Information (SAI). These documents provide detailed information about the mutual fund scheme, its features, investment objectives, risks, and other relevant details for investors to make informed decisions. 68 / 100 68. When the asset allocation is maintained as a constant ratio by regular rebalancing of the portfolio, it is known as ________ . A) Dynamic asset allocation B) Fixed asset allocation C) Flexible asset allocation Fixed asset allocation refers to maintaining a constant ratio of asset allocation in a portfolio through regular rebalancing. This means that the portfolio’s allocation to different asset classes, such as equity and debt, remains fixed and is adjusted periodically to maintain the desired allocation. This strategy helps investors maintain their desired risk and return profile over time. 69 / 100 69. Mutual funds can buy and sell securities only on a delivery basis. State whether this statement is True or False. A) TRUE B) FALSE The statement is false. Mutual funds can buy and sell securities on both delivery and non-delivery (derivative) basis, depending on the type of fund and the investment strategy outlined in its scheme documents. 70 / 100 70. Identify the TRUE statement. A) While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an entry load, then the initial value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV plus Entry Load B) While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an exit load, then the later value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV plus Exit Load A) Both A and B B) Only B C) Only A The true statement is A) “While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an entry load, then the initial value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV plus Entry Load.” Entry load refers to the charges imposed by a mutual fund at the time of investment. To calculate the returns for an investor, the initial NAV is adjusted by adding the entry load. On the other hand, if there is an exit load, the later value of the NAV is adjusted by subtracting the exit load. Therefore, the correct answer is “Only A.” 71 / 100 71. Which among the following schemes would have a lower risk of concentration? A) Focused fund B) Sector fund C) Multi-cap fund D) Thematic fund Among the given options, a multi-cap fund would have a lower risk of concentration. Multi-cap funds have the flexibility to invest across different market capitalizations and sectors, which helps in diversifying the portfolio and reducing the concentration risk associated with a specific segment or theme. Focused funds, thematic funds, and sector funds tend to have a narrower focus, which may result in a higher risk of concentration. 72 / 100 72. For KYC verification, ________ is not accepted as a photo identity documentation for Micro SIP’s. A) Employee ID cards issued by companies registered with Registrar of Companies B) Credit Card C) Photo Debit Card D) Card issued to National Pension System (NPS) subscribers Credit card is not accepted because it may not be backed up by a bank account. Therefore, the correct answer is “Credit Card.” 73 / 100 73. As per the fair valuation principles laid out by SEBI, it is mandatory to disclose the valuation policy in A) Statement of Additional Information B) The fair valuation principles are not to be put in public C) Fund fact sheet D) Statement of Accounts sent to investors periodically The valuation policy, as per the fair valuation principles laid out by SEBI, must be disclosed in the Statement of Additional Information (SAI). The SAI provides detailed information about the mutual fund scheme, including its investment policies, valuation practices, and other relevant details for investors. 74 / 100 74. The average net assets of a fund were Rs 800 crore and the investment transactions of the fund were Rs 1600 crore. Calculate the Portfolio Turnover Ratio. A) 10 times B) 2 times C) 0.5 times D) 20 times The Portfolio Turnover Ratio is calculated as the Value of Purchase and Sale of Securities during a period divided by the average size of net assets of the scheme during the period. In this case, the calculation would be: Portfolio Turnover Ratio = Value of Purchase and Sale of Securities / Average Net Assets = 1600 crore / 800 crore = 2 times. Therefore, the correct answer is “2 times.” 75 / 100 75. Which of the following cannot be considered for the purpose of selecting a scheme’s benchmark? A) Investment strategy of the MF scheme B) Scheme’s asset allocation pattern C) Scheme’s past returns D) Mutual fund scheme’s investment objective A scheme’s past returns cannot be considered for the purpose of selecting its benchmark. The benchmark should be selected based on factors such as the mutual fund scheme’s investment objective, investment strategy, and asset allocation pattern. Past returns can vary over time and may not accurately represent the benchmark that aligns with the scheme’s investment philosophy. 76 / 100 76. How often should the Key Information Memorandum (KIM) be updated? A) At least once every six months B) At least once a month C) At least once a year D) It need not be updated after it is issued once The Key Information Memorandum (KIM) should be updated at least once a year. The KIM provides key details about the mutual fund scheme, and it is important to keep it updated to reflect any changes in the scheme’s features or objectives. 77 / 100 77. Long Duration debt scheme invests in debt instruments with Macaulay duration _____ . A) below 1 year B) greater than 7 years C) between 1 year and 3 years A long duration debt scheme invests in debt instruments with a Macaulay duration greater than 7 years. Macaulay duration is a measure of the weighted average time it takes to receive the cash flows from a bond. Long duration schemes have longer maturity bonds in their portfolio, which makes them sensitive to interest rate changes. 78 / 100 78. What term is used to describe the Net Asset Value (NAV) of the scheme after the dividend is paid out (Remember the NAV would have dropped to the extent of the dividend paid)? A) Lower NAV B) Dividend NAV C) Ex-Dividend NAV D) Cum-Dividend NAV The term used to describe the NAV of the scheme after the dividend is paid out is the Ex-Dividend NAV. After the dividend is paid to the investors, the NAV of the scheme decreases by the amount of the dividend distributed. 79 / 100 79. A mutual fund scheme’s NAV is said to be cum-dividend from the A) date the dividend is announced till it is paid out B) date of notice of meeting C) date the dividend is paid D) date unit holders approve the dividend When a dividend is announced and until it is paid out, the mutual fund scheme’s Net Asset Value (NAV) is said to be cum-dividend. 80 / 100 80. Unsystematic risk can be reduced through diversification. State whether True or False. A) TRUE B) FALSE Unsystematic risk, also known as company-specific or diversifiable risk, can be reduced through diversification. By investing in a diversified portfolio of assets across different sectors and companies, an investor can reduce the impact of individual company or industry-specific risks on their overall portfolio. 81 / 100 81. A mutual fund has the policy of imposing an exit load of 2% for redemption up to one year and 1% for redemptions beyond one year. If an investor redeems 2000 units at an NAV of Rs 40 at the end of six months from the date of investment, what will be the redemption amount receivable by the investor? A) Rs. 79200 B) Rs. 78400 C) Rs. 80000 D) Rs. 76500 The investor has redeemed the units within a year of investment, so the exit load applicable is 2%. Calculation: 2000 units × Rs 40 = Rs 80000, Less 2% exit load: 2% of Rs 80000 = Rs 1600 (Rs 80000 × 2 / 100), Net amount = Rs 80000 – Rs 1600 = Rs 78400. Therefore, the correct answer is “Rs. 78400.” 82 / 100 82. Mutual fund distributors can only earn upfront commission from the mutual funds. State whether True or False. A) TRUE B) FALSE The statement is false. Mutual fund distributors can earn both upfront commissions and trail commissions from the mutual funds. Upfront commissions are paid at the time of investment, while trail commissions are recurring commissions paid over the holding period of the investor’s investment in the scheme. 83 / 100 83. Which of the following is an advantage of mutual funds? A) Economies of scale B) Customized portfolio C) Convenience to buy stocks and bonds directly from the mutual fund Mutual funds benefit from economies of scale, as they pool funds from multiple investors to achieve lower transaction costs and access a diversified portfolio. 84 / 100 84. Mutual funds are constituted as ‘Trusts’ in India. Who are the beneficiaries of the trust? A) The employees of the Asset Management Company B) Trustees of the mutual fund C) The mutual fund distributors D) Unitholders The beneficiaries of the trust formed by a mutual fund are the unitholders, who invest in the mutual fund scheme and hold units representing their proportionate ownership in the assets of the fund. 85 / 100 85. Which of the following statements is True? A) Hindu Undivided Families (HUFs) are not allowed to invest in mutual fund schemes B) Minors cannot invest in mutual fund schemes C) Foreign investors can invest in Indian mutual fund schemes, provided they have completed the Know-Your-Client (KYC) formalities The statement that is true is “Foreign investors can invest in Indian mutual fund schemes, provided they have completed the Know-Your-Client (KYC) formalities.” Foreign investors are permitted to invest in Indian mutual fund schemes subject to the necessary regulatory and KYC requirements. 86 / 100 86. The expenses which can be charged by an Asset Management Company to a Mutual Fund scheme are limited by A) Fund Managers B) Investors C) Sponsors D) SEBI The expenses that can be charged by an Asset Management Company (AMC) to a Mutual Fund scheme are limited by the regulations set by SEBI (Securities and Exchange Board of India). 87 / 100 87. The opening of time stamping machine needs to be documented and reported to _______. A) Asset Management Company B) SEBI C) Trustees D) Sponsors The opening of a time stamping machine used for mutual fund transactions needs to be properly documented and reported to the Trustees. Time stamping machines have tamper-proof seals, and any opening of the machine for repairs or maintenance should be done by authorized vendors or nominated persons of the mutual fund. This documentation and reporting ensure transparency and accountability in the handling of time-stamped transactions. Therefore, the correct answer is “Trustees.” 88 / 100 88. The Income Tax Act allows setting-off of the short-term capital loss against long term capital gains. State whether True or False. A) TRUE B) FALSE The statement is true. The Income Tax Act allows for the setting-off of short-term capital losses against long-term capital gains. This provision allows investors to reduce their tax liability by offsetting losses from certain investments against gains from others, subject to specified conditions and limits. 89 / 100 89. Investors have bought 20 crore units of a mutual fund scheme at Rs. 10 each. The scheme has thus mobilized 20 crore units X Rs. 10 per unit i.e., Rs 200 crore. An amount of Rs. 140 crore is invested in equities. The balance amount of Rs 60 crore, mobilized from investors, was placed in bank deposits. Interest and dividend receivable (accrued but yet not received) by the scheme is Rs 8 crore, scheme expenses payable (accrued but not paid yet) is Rs 4 crore. Calculate the scheme’s NAV per unit. A) b. Rs. 10.20 B) d. Rs. 10.00 C) c. Rs. 20.00 D) a. Rs. 20.40 The scheme’s NAV per unit can be calculated by subtracting the accrued scheme expenses payable from the net assets and dividing it by the total number of units. Here, the net assets would be Rs. 200 crore – Rs. 4 crore (scheme expenses payable) = Rs. 196 crore. The total number of units is 20 crore. Therefore, the NAV per unit would be Rs. 196 crore / 20 crore = Rs. 10.20 per unit. 90 / 100 90. What is asset allocation? A) Deciding which and how many mutual fund schemes to invest in B) Deciding how to invest money across various asset categories in line with one’s risk profile, financial objectives and current situation C) Deciding which asset category would outperform the others and investing in it D) Finalizing which mutual fund schemes would deliver the highest returns in the future Asset allocation refers to the process of deciding how to invest money across various asset categories in line with one’s risk profile, financial objectives, and current situation. It involves diversifying investments among different types of assets, such as stocks, bonds, and cash, based on the investor’s goals and risk tolerance. The goal is to create a well-balanced portfolio that maximizes returns while managing risk effectively. Therefore, the correct answer is “Deciding how to invest money across various asset categories in line with one’s risk profile, financial objectives and current situation.” 91 / 100 91. In an Arbitrage fund, the minimum investment in equity and equity related instruments shall be ______ of total assets. A) 55 percent B) 50 percent C) 60 percent D) 65 percent In an Arbitrage fund, the minimum investment in equity and equity related instruments shall be 65 percent of total assets. Therefore, the correct answer is “65 percent.” 92 / 100 92. Ultra-short-term debt scheme invests in debt and money market instruments with Macaulay duration between A) 1 to 3 months B) 1 year to 3 years C) 3 to 6 months D) 6 to 12 months An ultra-short-term debt scheme invests in debt and money market instruments with a Macaulay duration between 3 months and 6 months. 93 / 100 93. Who handles the day-to-day management of the mutual fund? A) Mutual Fund Trustees B) Asset Management Company C) Registrar and Transfer Agency D) Unitholders The day-to-day management of a mutual fund is handled by the Asset Management Company (AMC), which is responsible for managing the fund’s investments, operations, and other activities. 94 / 100 94. Which of the following scheme categories would be considered the least risky in terms of credit risk? A) Gilt fund B) Credit risk fund C) Dynamic bond D) Corporate bond fund In terms of credit risk, gilt funds would be considered the least risky among the given options. Gilt funds predominantly invest in government securities, which are backed by the sovereign guarantee, making them relatively safer in terms of credit risk compared to other debt funds that invest in lower-rated or riskier bonds. 95 / 100 95. Banks and NBFCs can lend money against ________ of mutual fund units. A) Nomination B) Redemption C) Pledge Banks and NBFCs can lend money against the pledge of mutual fund units. When an investor pledges their mutual fund units, it serves as collateral for obtaining a loan from banks or NBFCs. The units remain in the investor’s name, but they are held by the lender as security until the loan is repaid. 96 / 100 96. By mistake the ARN number is wrongly mentioned in the application form. How will such an application be processed? A) As a Direct Plan application B) The application will be rejected C) It will be returned for rectification D) As a Regular Plan, provided the error being corrected within a time frame If the wrong ARN code is mentioned in the application form, then the application will be processed as a Regular Plan. However, the AMC will contact the investor/distributor for the correct ARN code within 30 calendar days of the receipt of the application form. If the error is not rectified within these 30 days, the application will be reprocessed as a direct application without charging any exit load. Therefore, the correct answer is “As a Regular Plan, provided the error is corrected within a time frame.” 97 / 100 97. Registrar and Transfer Agency function must be independent of the Asset Management Company, and it cannot be retained in-house. State whether this statement is True or False. A) FALSE B) TRUE The statement is true. The Registrar and Transfer Agency (RTA) function of a mutual fund must be independent of the Asset Management Company (AMC) and cannot be retained in-house to ensure transparency and impartiality in the operations of the mutual fund. 98 / 100 98. What is the portfolio of a ‘Fund of Funds’ made up of? A) Money market securities B) Equity stocks C) Debt securities D) Mutual Fund schemes A ‘Fund of Funds’ invests its pool of resources in various other mutual fund schemes available in the market. It does not directly invest in equity or debt securities. 99 / 100 99. How many (maximum) bank accounts can a resident individual investor register with a mutual fund folio? A) 1 B) 2 C) 5 D) 3 A resident individual investor can register a maximum of three bank accounts with a mutual fund folio. These bank accounts are linked for various purposes such as investments, redemptions, dividends, and other financial transactions related to the mutual fund investments. 100 / 100 100. In what form do mutual fund distributors earn revenue? A) Fees collected from the investors B) Investment advisory fee from mutual funds C) Commission received from Association of Mutual Funds in India D) Commission from mutual funds for the distribution of the schemes Mutual fund distributors earn revenue in the form of commissions from mutual funds for distributing their schemes. The commission is typically based on a percentage of the assets invested by investors in the schemes. Your score is The average score is 0% LinkedIn Facebook Twitter VKontakte 0% Send feedback
Feel Real Exam 5- NISM-Series-V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification July 8, 2023 by Rohit Singh with No Comment NISM-Series-V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification 0% 0 votes, 0 avg 0 NISM-Series-V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification Feel Real Exam 5- NISM-Series-V-A: Mutual Fund Distributors Certification The number of attempts remaining is 10 1 / 100 1. Identify the False statement/s. A. Investments in mutual funds can be made on a repatriable basis by NRIs B. The mutual fund will automatically pay in Dollars when the NRI redeems his investments which were made on a repatriable basis A) Only A is false B) Both A and B are false C) Only B is false For Non-resident investors, payment is made by the AMC in Rupees. In case the investment has been made on a repatriable basis, and the investor wishes to transfer the money abroad, the costs associated with converting the rupees into any foreign currency would be to the account of the investor. Proceeds of investments made on a repatriable basis can be credited to an NRE or FCNR account, as required by the investor. 2 / 100 2. ________ ensures that the information contained in the scheme-related documents (SID and SAI) is fully complied with. A) The Sponsor B) The AMC C) The Trustees D) The Fund Manager The trustees shall ensure that all transactions entered into by the AMC are in compliance with the regulations and the scheme’s objectives and intent. 3 / 100 3. Redemption proceeds have to be paid to the mutual fund unit holders within the time specified by _____ from time to time. A) SEBI B) AMFI C) Registrar of Companies D) Ministry of Finance Redemption proceeds have to be paid to the mutual fund unit holders within the time specified by SEBI from time to time. SEBI sets the guidelines and regulations regarding the redemption process to ensure timely payments to investors. 4 / 100 4. Identify the TRUE statement/s. 1. The market liquidity can get impacted due to market-related events and company factors 2. There cannot be a price impact on mutual fund units due to liquidity demands due to redemption or portfolio rebalancing A) Both 1 and 2 are false B) Both 1 and 2 are true C) Only 2 is true D) Only 1 is true Liquidity Risk is one of the general risk factors involved in Mutual Fund investments. The liquidity of investments made in the Scheme may be restricted bytrading volumes, settlement periods, and transfer procedures. Market liquidity can be impacted by market-related events and company factors, which can have a price impact on mutual fund units. Therefore, statement 1 is true. However, liquidity demands due to redemption or portfolio rebalancing can also result in a price impact on mutual fund units. Hence, statement 2 is false. 5 / 100 5. An Asset Management Company (AMC) can recover investment management and advisory fees on the management of unclaimed amounts, ________. A) only on the actual expenses incurred in holding the funds B) as per the fee applicable to the scheme from which the redemption was made C) at a maximum rate of 0.50 percent per annum D) No investment management and advisory fees can be charged on unclaimed amounts An AMC can recover investment management and advisory fees on the management of unclaimed amounts, but it is capped at a maximum rate of 0.50 percent per annum. This fee is charged to cover the costs incurred in holding and managing the unclaimed funds. 6 / 100 6. The expenses of _______ cannot be charged to a mutual fund scheme. A) custodian fees B) GST – Goods and Service tax C) registrar services for the transfer of units sold D) software development The expenses on software development are not for a particular scheme but for the AMC as a whole and cannot be charged to a particular scheme. 7 / 100 7. When can mutual funds charge an additional expense of 0.30% of daily net assets of the scheme? A) If the new inflows from beyond the top 30 cities are at least (a) 20 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or (b) 5 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher B) If the new inflows from beyond the top 30 cities are at least (a) 30 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or (b) 15 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher C) If the new inflows from beyond the top 15 cities are at least(a) 10 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or (b) 5 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher D) If the new inflows from beyond the top 15 cities are at least (a) 25 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or (b) 15 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher Mutual funds can charge an additional expense of 0.30% of daily net assets of the scheme if the new inflows from beyond the top 30 cities are at least (a) 30 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or (b) 15 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher. This additional expense allows for increased distribution reach and penetration in non-top 30 cities. 8 / 100 8. Which of these entities can invest in Indian mutual funds? A) Foreign portfolio investor B) Insurance company C) Salaried individual A) Only C B) All A, B, and C C) B and C D) A and B All of the above can invest in Indian mutual funds. 9 / 100 9. Identify the FALSE statement(s) – A) For Index funds, the NAV is calculated up to 4 decimal points B) The AMC and a mutual fund scheme of the AMC can have the same auditor A) Both A and B are false B) Only B is false C) Only A is false NAV is to be calculated up to 4 decimal places in the case of index funds, liquid funds, and other debt funds. Accounts of the mutual fund schemes need to be maintained independent of the accounts of the AMC. The auditor appointed to audit the mutual fund scheme accounts needs to be different from the auditor of the AMC. 10 / 100 10. Once the mutual fund units are pledged, the unit holder/s _______ . A) Can sell the units but after a period of 3 months B) Cannot do additional purchases in the same account C) Cannot sell the units but can switch the units to another scheme D) Cannot sell the units When mutual fund units are pledged, the unit holder/s cannot sell the units. Pledging units involves using them as collateral for obtaining loans or credit. The units are held as security and cannot be sold until the pledgee gives written permission to release the pledge. 11 / 100 11. A mutual fund scheme’s performance must always be measured relative to the _____ . A) Benchmark B) Asset class C) Index D) Investment objective To evaluate the performance of a mutual fund scheme, it should be compared to a pre-defined benchmark that represents a comparable market index. This allows investors to assess how well the scheme is performing against its intended benchmark. 12 / 100 12. Different investors of the similar age group should always have the same asset allocation in their investment portfolios – State whether True or False? A) FALSE B) TRUE Different investors in the same age group may have different financial goals, risk tolerances, and investment preferences. Therefore, it is not necessary for investors of the same age group to have the same asset allocation in their investment portfolios. Each investor’s asset allocation should be based on their individual financial situation, risk appetite, and investment objectives. 13 / 100 13. Opening of a time-stamping machine needs to be documented and reported to the Asset Management Company (AMC) – State whether True or False? A) FALSE B) TRUE FALSE 14 / 100 14. Which document is used by fund rating agencies and also by investors to check the performance of various schemes of a mutual fund? A) Annual accounts of the AMC B) Fund Fact Sheet C) Key Information Memorandum (KIM) D) Scheme Information Document (SID) One of the most popular documents from the mutual fund is the monthly Fund Factsheet. This document is extensively used by investors, fund distributors, fund rating agencies, research analysts, media, and others to access information about the various schemes of the mutual fund. 15 / 100 15. Which of the following functions can an Asset Management Company (AMC) do in-house? A) Custodial Services B) Registrar and Transfer Agent C) Broking An Asset Management Company (AMC) can handle the function of Registrar and Transfer Agent (RTA) in-house. The RTA is responsible for maintaining the records of unit holders, processing transactions, and handling investor services. However, the AMC cannot provide custodial services or engage in broking activities. Custodial services are usually provided by specialized custodian banks, and broking activities are typically carried out by registered brokers. 16 / 100 16. ______ is the most relevant factor for comparing the performance of liquid funds of similar category offered by various mutual fund houses. A) Current NAV B) Expenses C) Maturity D) Taxation Expenses are the most relevant factor for comparing the performance of liquid funds of similar categories offered by different mutual fund houses. A fund with a high expense ratio can significantly impact the returns generated by the fund, reducing the overall profitability for the investor. 17 / 100 17. Where is the performance data for all schemes across the mutual fund industry available? A) The Scheme Information Document (SID) B) The Fund Fact Sheet C) Key Information Memorandum (KIM) D) AMFI Website Each AMC is required to publish a scheme performance dashboard on its website and update it regularly. The scheme performance data is also available on the AMFI website (www.amfiindia.com), which carries the performance data of all the mutual fund schemes. It is an exhaustive resource where one can access the same for various different periods and fund categories. 18 / 100 18. Identify the TRUE statements with respect to Transmission of mutual fund units – A) Before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will insist on an indemnity against future problems for the mutual fund arising out of the transfer B) Before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will not insist on the death certificate of the deceased unit-holder C) Before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will insist on the KYC documentation from the nominee A) A and B are true B) A and C are true C) B and C are true D) All A, B, and C are true Transmission is the process of transferring units to the person entitled to receive it in the event of the death of the unit holder. In case of transmission, before the transfer is effected, the mutual fund will insist on the KYC documentation from the nominee, death certificate of the deceased unit-holder, and an indemnity against future problems for the mutual fund arising out of the transfer. 19 / 100 19. Usually, most investors might have invested across various asset categories. However, the problem with such asset allocation is that _______ . A) Such asset allocation earns low returns B) Such asset allocation is done without defining any objective or without any process C) Such asset allocation increases the portfolio risk D) Such asset allocation leads to the payment of additional taxes The basic meaning of asset allocation is to allocate an investor’s money across asset categories to achieve some objective. However, in many cases, investors allocate their funds across various asset categories without any process or rationale behind it. Asset allocation is a process of allocating money across various asset categories in line with a stated objective. 20 / 100 20. Which of these statements is true with respect to Key Information Memorandum (KIM)? A) KIM is a document which must accompany all mutual fund application forms B) KIM provided NAV history of all mutual fund schemes C) KIM is the annual newsletter of the mutual fund D) KIM is a document that provides key information of the past performance of the scheme While an investor is expected to read all the scheme-related documents, circulation of the same along with the application forms is too difficult and costly, especially if the printed forms are to be distributed. In order to ensure the investor gets access to sufficient information despite such a constraint, a Key Information Memorandum (KIM) is mandatorily circulated along with the application form. 21 / 100 21. The NAV of an equity fund is Rs. 76.45, and the face value is Rs. 10. An investor invests Rs 30,000. How many units will be allotted to him? (There is no entry load) A) 477 B) 1866.43 C) 392.41 D) 3000 Units are allotted as per the current NAV. The amount invested divided by the NAV will give the units allotted. Rs 30,000 / 76.45 = 392.41 22 / 100 22. These debt mutual funds have been arranged from lowest risk to highest risk. Identify the risk which we are discussing : 1. Liquid Funds 2. Money market funds 3. Medium term bond funds A) Default Risk B) Interest Rate Risk C) Concentration Risk D) Credit Risk Interest rate risk is the risk that an investment’s value will change as a result of a change in interest rates. In this case, the debt mutual funds have been arranged in order of increasing interest rate risk, with liquid funds having the lowest risk and medium-term bond funds having the highest risk. 23 / 100 23. _________ would not be an originator to a special purpose vehicle, in case of securitized asset. A) Reserve Bank of India (RBI) B) Housing finance company C) Non-banking finance company D) A Commercial Bank A securitization transaction involves the sale of receivables by the originator (a commercial bank, non-banking finance company, housing finance company, or a manufacturing/service company) to a Special Purpose Vehicle (SPV), typically set up in the form of a trust. Investors are issued rated Pass Through Certificates (PTCs), the proceeds of which are paid as consideration to the originator. The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) will not be an originator. 24 / 100 24. When a mutual fund distributor empanels with an AMC, he/she has to sign a declaration for ______ . A) ensuring that all employees who are selling mutual funds will have more than one ARN code B) Guarantee of adding a minimum of 25 investors every month C) declaring the rebates given back to the investors D) Commitment to abide by statutory codes, guidelines, and circulars When a mutual fund distributor empanels with an AMC, they have to sign a declaration committing to abide by statutory codes, guidelines, and circulars. This ensures that the distributor follows the regulations and guidelines set by the regulatory authorities and operates within the legal framework. 25 / 100 25. Indicate which of these funds have the lowest to highest risk sequence? A) Liquid Fund B) Credit Risk Fund C) Corporate Bond Fund A) A – C – B B) B – C – A C) A – B – C D) C – A – B Liquid funds are least risky as they invest in high-quality debt instruments. Corporate Bond Funds are a little more risky as they predominantly invest in AA+ and above-rated corporate bonds. Credit Risk Funds are much more risky as they invest in below highest-rated corporate bonds. The minimum investment in corporate bonds shall be 65 percent of total assets only in AA (excludes AA+ rated corporate bonds) and below-rated corporate bonds. 26 / 100 26. If an investor claims his unclaimed redemption amount after 3 years, the payment will be based on the ________. A) current NAV B) NAV at the time of original redemption C) average of the NAVs, i.e. current NAV and NAV at the time of original redemption D) NAV at the end of three years If the investor claims the unclaimed redemption amount after 3 years, the payment will be based on the Net Asset Value (NAV) at the end of three years. 27 / 100 27. Identify the FALSE statement/s with respect to benchmarks for mutual fund schemes. A) A Multi-Cap fund can have Nifty 500 index as its benchmark B) A Multi-Cap fund can have BSE Sensex as its benchmark A) Only A is false B) Only B is false C) None of the above D) Both A and B are false Only B is false 28 / 100 28. Which of the following is INCORRECT with respect to advertisements of Mutual Funds by AMCs? A) All of the above are incorrect B) The advertisements can show past performance of the scheme C) The advertisements can show the return numbers D) The advertisements can use celebrities for endorsements As per the SEBI Advertisement Code for Mutual Funds, no celebrities shall form part of the advertisement. AMFI can use celebrities, but individual mutual funds cannot use celebrities. 29 / 100 29. Identify the factor that must be considered to determine the asset allocation for an investor. A) Scheme expenses B) AUM of the scheme C) Past performance of the scheme D) Financial goals of the investor and his financial situation Asset allocation is determined based on the financial goals of the investor and their financial situation. It considers the returns required to achieve the goals, the time horizon, and the risk profile of the individual. 30 / 100 30. The return from a mutual fund scheme is 8.3% and the Standard Deviation is 0.6. The risk-free rate of return is 5%. Calculate the Sharpe ratio. A) 4 B) 2.87 C) 5.5 D) 3.5 The Sharpe Ratio is calculated using the formula: (Return Earned – Risk-Free Return) / Standard Deviation. In this case, the calculation would be (8.3 – 5) / 0.6 = 3.3 / 0.6 = 5.5. 31 / 100 31. Identify the true statement(s) with respect to the benchmark for Sector Funds. A) It’s ideal to benchmark a sector fund against an index representing the respective sector B) It’s advisable to benchmark a sector fund against a diversified fund to get the correct picture A) Both A and B are true B) Only A is true C) Only B is true A sector fund should ideally be benchmarked against an index representing the respective sector it invests in. For example, a Banking Sector fund can be benchmarked against S&P BSE Bankex, and an Infrastructure Fund can be benchmarked against Nifty Infrastructure Index to get an accurate comparison and assessment of performance. 32 / 100 32. Identify the TRUE statement/s with respect to the risks associated with short selling and stock lending. 1. There is counterparty risk and liquidity risk in short selling 2. There is no risk associated with stock lending as the transaction is done through an approved intermediary A) Only 2 is true B) Only 1 is true C) Both 1 and 2 are true 33 / 100 33. Ms. Apeksha invests Rs 2 crore in a Gilt scheme at 2 pm with a local cheque. What would be the applicable NAV for the allotment of units? A) Closing NAV of the next business day B) NAV of the business day on which the funds are available for utilization C) Closing NAV of the date of application D) Closing NAV of the day immediately preceding the date of application Irrespective of the time of receipt of application, for all equity-oriented funds and debt funds (except liquid funds) in respect of a transaction of any amount, the applicable NAV will be the NAV of the business day on which the funds are available for utilization. 34 / 100 34. Smita is a young investor, and her parents advise her to invest in fixed deposits of banks so that these funds can be used for her retirement. If Smita follows her parents’ advice, what risk does she face? A) There is a risk of low returns B) There is no risk as fixed deposits are quite safe C) There is a high risk of default in her portfolio D) She has to select the correct bank which is financially strong Fixed deposits usually give a low rate of return, and when adjusted against inflation, the return can sometimes be very low or even negative. This will not help in building her retirement corpus. Smita is a young investor and has plenty of time in her hand. So she should invest in growth stocks/equity mutual funds rather than fixed deposits. 35 / 100 35. AMFI Code of Ethics states that _______ cannot become a distributor of mutual funds. A) HNIs B) Empanelled distributors C) Banks D) Employees of AMC Employees of Asset Management Companies (AMCs) cannot become mutual fund distributors. 36 / 100 36. Identify which of these is a function of Association of Mutual Funds in India’s (AMFI). A) To make available the AUM, NAV, and other important data of the mutual fund industry B) To calculate the correct NAVs C) To manage the Investor Protection Fund D) To regulate and control insider trading AMFI’s function is to make available the Assets Under Management (AUM), Net Asset Value (NAV), and other important data of the mutual fund industry to investors. 37 / 100 37. Identify the TRUE statement with respect to ‘Jensen’s Alpha’ of a mutual fund scheme? A) It is a measure of simple outperformance, irrespective of the risk taken B) None of the above C) It is a measure of outperformance after adjusting for the risk taken D) It is a measure of risk and outperformance is related to returns Jensen’s Alpha is a risk-adjusted performance measure that indicates the outperformance of a mutual fund scheme after adjusting for the risk taken. It measures the excess return of the scheme compared to the expected return predicted by the capital asset pricing model (CAPM), considering the scheme’s beta and the market’s average return. A positive Jensen’s Alpha indicates that the scheme has outperformed its expected return, while a negative value indicates underperformance. 38 / 100 38. The return from a fund is 9%, Standard Deviation is 0.75, and the Beta is 1.4. The risk-free rate of return is 7%. What is the DENOMINATOR in the calculation of the Sharpe Ratio? A) 9 B) 0.75 C) 7 D) 0.4 The denominator in the calculation of the Sharpe Ratio is the Standard Deviation, which in this case is given as 0.75. The Sharpe Ratio is calculated as the excess return of the fund (return – risk-free rate) divided by the standard deviation of the fund’s returns. It measures the risk-adjusted performance of the fund, taking into account both the return and the volatility (as measured by the standard deviation). 39 / 100 39. In which of the following cases can Goods and Service Tax (GST) be charged to the mutual fund scheme over and above the Total Expense Ratio of the scheme? A) GST applicable on AMC fees only can be charged to the scheme over and above the Total Expense Ratio B) GST applicable on AMC fees as well as distributor commission can be charged to the scheme over and above the Total Expense Ratio C) GST applicable on distributor commission only can be charged to the scheme over and above the Total Expense Ratio D) GST applicable on any fees must be within the Total Expense Ratio Goods and Service Tax (GST) can be charged to the mutual fund scheme over and above the Total Expense Ratio (TER) on AMC fees only. The GST charged on any other fees, such as distributor commission, should be within the Total Expense Ratio. This means that the AMC can charge GST on its fees separately, but the overall expense charged to the scheme should be within the prescribed limits of the TER. 40 / 100 40. Identify the FALSE statement(s) – A – Authorized signatories have to sign the request for transactions of institutional investors in mutual funds B – Even if the Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association does not permit investment in mutual funds, the company can invest in mutual funds based on a Board Resolution A) Statement A is false B) Statement B is false C) Both statements A and B are false Authorized signatories have to sign the request for transactions of institutional investors in mutual funds. However, a company cannot invest in mutual funds if its Memorandum of Association and Articles of Association do not permit such investments. A Board Resolution is not sufficient to bypass this restriction. 41 / 100 41. Some of the costs incurred by the Asset Management Companies to manage the mutual fund schemes can be charged to _________ in proportion to their holding of units in the scheme. A) Distributors B) Unit holders C) Independent Financial Advisors D) Stock Brokers Costs incurred by the Asset Management Companies to manage the mutual fund schemes are shared by the unit holders in proportion to their holding of units in the scheme. 42 / 100 42. Identify the TRUE statement(s) – A) A systematic transaction cannot be canceled B) Assuming a mutual fund scheme is profitable, then the investors can keep encashing some profits through a Systematic Withdrawal Plan A) Only B is true B) Only A is true C) Both A and B are true A systematic transaction (like SIP, etc.) can be stopped. Assuming the scheme is profitable, the repurchase ensures that some of the profits are being regularly encashed by the investor. 43 / 100 43. Which of these pieces of information is not contained in the Scheme Information Document (SID)? A) Risk factors of the scheme B) Portfolio features C) Investment objective of the scheme D) Names of securities in the scheme’s portfolio The names of securities in the scheme’s portfolio are not contained in the Scheme Information Document (SID). The SID provides important information about the mutual fund scheme, including the investment objective, risk factors, and portfolio features. However, the specific names of securities in the scheme’s portfolio are typically not disclosed in the SID. Detailed information about the portfolio holdings can be found in periodic reports such as the Fact Sheet or Annual Report of the scheme. 44 / 100 44. _______ is not included in the fundamental attributes of a mutual fund scheme. A) Any safety net or guarantee provided B) Exit loads C) Liquidity provisions such as listing, repurchase, redemption D) Aggregate fees and expenses charged to the scheme Exit loads do not form part of the fundamental attributes of a mutual fund scheme. 45 / 100 45. Amongst the distribution channels mentioned below, which one is likely to sell funds of only a single mutual fund house? A) Distribution Company B) Bank C) Institutional sales team of the Asset Management Company D) Independent financial advisor The institutional sales team of the Asset Management Company is likely to sell funds of only a single mutual fund house. They are employed by the mutual fund house and are responsible for promoting and selling the schemes of that particular AMC. 46 / 100 46. A top-performing scheme within a category ________. A) Usually remains the top performer for a long period of time B) Usually be the worst performer in the next years to come C) Is the best choice for an investor to invest his funds D) May or may not be the top performer in the next years to come A top-performing scheme within a category may or may not remain the top performer in the future. Past performance is not a guarantee of future performance. The performance of mutual funds can change over time due to various factors, and it is important for investors to consider other factors and do thorough research before making investment decisions. 47 / 100 47. ________ is not a mutual fund distribution channel. A) Branches of Private sector banks B) Branches of Foreign banks C) Branches of Reserve Bank of India D) Branches of Public sector banks Reserve Bank of India or its branches are not involved in the sales and distribution of mutual fund products. 48 / 100 48. The trustees of a mutual fund are appointed by the ______ . A) Asset Management Company (AMC) B) Sponsors C) SEBI D) Custodian The application to SEBI for registration of a mutual fund is made by the Sponsor(s). The Sponsors then appoint the Trustees. The operations of the mutual fund trust are governed by a Trust Deed, which is executed between the sponsors and the trustees. 49 / 100 49. Which of these statement(s) is/are TRUE? A) If the mutual fund units are held in demat form, they cannot be converted into physical form B) When a mutual fund is redeemed or when there is a dividend pay-out, the amount will be credited to the bank account linked to the demat account for those mutual fund investors who opt for demat units A) Both A and B are correct B) Only B is correct C) Only A is correct The mutual fund investor has the option to convert the demat units into physical form through a process called re-materialization. Dividends and redemption proceeds for demat units are credited directly to the bank account linked to the demat account via electronic modes such as direct credit, NEFT, and NACH facility. 50 / 100 50. How can the empanelment of a mutual fund distributor be terminated? A) When all the clients of the distributor shift to Direct Plans B) Asset Management Company can terminate the empanelment at any time C) All of the above D) The empanelment gets automatically terminated on the completion of the term of empanelment While empaneling with an AMC, the mutual fund distributor applicant signs a declaration that gives power to the AMC to terminate the empanelment at any time. 51 / 100 51. Identify the true statement with respect to investments in mutual funds through Stock Exchanges? A) None of the above are true B) The mutual fund units purchased through a stock exchange have a mandatory lock-in period of 30 days C) One can buy mutual fund units on the stock exchange but cannot sell them on the stock exchange D) Stock exchanges have now become another important channel for mutual fund companies to sell their units to investors Stock exchanges have now become another important channel for mutual fund companies to sell their units to investors. SEBI has facilitated buying and selling of mutual fund units through stock exchanges, enabling increased participation of retail investors. 52 / 100 52. Not more than 25% of the Net Assets will be invested in the Derivatives Market’ – This statement best describes the ________ of the mutual fund scheme. A) Investment Policy B) Investment Strategy C) Investment Objective D) Investment Interest The statement “Not more than 25% of the Net Assets will be invested in the Derivatives Market” describes the investment policy of the mutual fund scheme. The investment policy sets guidelines and restrictions on the types of investments the scheme can make, including the allocation to the derivatives market. It ensures that the scheme adheres to regulatory requirements and manages the risk associated with derivative instruments. 53 / 100 53. An Addendum has to be issued for changes in ________. A) Half-yearly results of the mutual fund B) Scheme Information Document (SID) C) Statement of Additional Information (SAI) D) Fund Fact Sheet An Addendum has to be issued for changes in the Scheme Information Document (SID). If there are any changes in the fundamental attributes of the scheme, an addendum to the existing SID should be issued and displayed on the AMC’s website. Other changes to the SID should also be communicated through an addendum. 54 / 100 54. In the case of a Sectoral Fund, the minimum investment in equity and equity-related instruments of a particular sector of total assets should be _____. A) 65% B) 95% C) 80% D) 70% In the case of a Sectoral Fund, the minimum investment in equity and equity-related instruments of a particular sector of total assets should be 80%. This ensures that the fund remains focused on the specific sectorand provides investors with exposure to that sector. The minimum requirement helps maintain the thematic nature of the fund and ensures that investors are investing in a fund with a significant allocation to the intended sector. 55 / 100 55. Mr. Mohit has filled up an application form for subscribing to a mutual fund scheme. However, the address mentioned in the application form is different from the address provided at the time of KYC compliance. Which address will be included in the mutual fund records once the KYC compliance is validated? A) Mr. Mohit can indicate which address is correct B) The address provided in the application form C) The address provided for KYC compliance D) The address provided in the application form will be used for all communications Once the first holder’s PAN is validated for KYC, the address provided in the KYC form will override the information provided in the application form. 56 / 100 56. Which of these statements are TRUE with respect to time stamping on mutual fund documents? A) Time stamping is relevant for non-financial mutual fund transactions B) The daily time stamping of application does not start with serial 1 C) Breakdown of time stamping process or breaking of seal is mandated to be duly recorded and reported to the Trustees A) A, B and C are true B) A and B are true C) A and C are true D) B and C are true 1) Applications for non-financial transactions like change of address are stamped. However, here stamping of time is not relevant; the data stamping is pertinent. 2) Applications are sequentially numbered from the first number of the machine to the last number of the machine, before a new numbering cycle is started for the machine. The daily time stamping of the application does not start with serial 1. 3) The points of acceptance have time stamping machines with tamper-proof seals. Opening the machine for repairs or maintenance is permitted only by vendors or nominated persons of the mutual fund. Such opening of the machine has to be properly documented and reported to the Trustees. 57 / 100 57. Identify the false statement(s). A) When an investor wants to redeem from a scheme, the distributor must suggest redemption from the scheme with the maximum exit load B) The mutual fund distributors can ignore the impact of exit load at the time of repurchase A) Only statement B is false B) Both statements A and B are false C) Only statement A is false Both taxes and loads reduce investment returns. Therefore, it is important for the distributor to consider these two aspects during repurchases/redemptions. This means that when there is a need to withdraw money from a scheme, the distributor must assess the implications of capital gains tax and exit loads. When an investor wants to redeem from a scheme, the distributor must suggest redemption from the scheme with the minimum exit load. 58 / 100 58. What is required for the termination of the services of an Asset Management Company (AMC)? A) AMFI should approve the termination of the Asset Management Company B) The custodian should approve the termination of the Asset Management Company C) 75% of the mutual funds distributors should approve the termination of the Asset Management Company D) 75% of the unitholders should approve the termination of the Asset Management Company The termination of an Asset Management Company (AMC) requires the approval of 75% of the unitholders of the scheme. This ensures that a majority of the investors agree to the termination and any subsequent changes in the management of the scheme. 59 / 100 59. The compliance requirements under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) apply only to mutual funds and not to other financial institutions – State whether True or False? A) FALSE B) TRUE The FATCA is a US law that aims to combat tax evasion by US persons opening accounts offshore. It enhances due diligence and information reporting requirements for both individual and entity accounts. On July 9, 2015, India signed an Inter-Governmental Agreement (IGA) with the USA for the implementation of FATCA. This is applicable to all financial institutions, including mutual funds. 60 / 100 60. Rising Sun Mutual Fund holds shares of AAA Ltd. in its portfolio. When the NAV of the scheme is calculated on 10th April, then each share of AAA Ltd. will be valued at ______ . A) Average traded price of AAA Ltd. on 10th April across all stock exchanges B) Opening price of AAA Ltd. on 10th April at BSE / NSE C) Closing price of AAA Ltd. on 10th April at BSE / NSE D) Average traded price of AAA Ltd. on 10th April at BSE / NSE As per the SEBI rules of valuation for equity shares, the securities shall be valued at the last quoted closing price on the stock exchange. When the securities are traded on more than one recognized stock exchange, the securities shall be valued at the last quoted closing price on the stock exchange where the security is principally traded. It would be left to the asset management company to select the appropriate stock exchange. 61 / 100 61. The ARN is allotted to the mutual fund distributors by ______ . A) SEBI B) AMFI C) AMC D) NISM A major role of AMFI involves the registration of mutual fund distributors, by allotting them AMFI Registration Number (ARN), which is mandatory for becoming a mutual fund distributor. 62 / 100 62. Which of these funds will generally have a higher fund management cost? A) Passive Equity Fund B) Debt Fund C) Active Equity Fund D) Equity Index Fund In Active Equity Funds, the fund manager engages in more buying and selling, resulting in higher transaction costs and research expenses. Therefore, the fund management costs are generally higher compared to other funds. 63 / 100 63. For a Sector Fund, the minimum investment in equity and equity-related instruments of a particular sector/theme shall be 90 percent of total assets. State whether True or False? A) TRUE B) FALSE Sectoral funds are open-ended equity schemes investing in a specific sector such as banks, power, etc. The minimum investment in equity and equity-related instruments of a particular sector/theme shall be 80 percent of total assets. 64 / 100 64. In a Contra Fund, the minimum investment in equity & equity-related instruments shall be ________ of total assets. A) 65 percent B) 50 percent C) 40 percent D) 55 percent In a Contra Fund, the minimum investment in equity & equity-related instruments shall be 65% of the total assets. A Contra Fund follows a contrarian investment strategy. 65 / 100 65. Who uses the information collected under the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA)? A) Indian Government B) Foreign Government or foreign agencies C) Indian Tax authorities D) All of the above To comply with the requirements of Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) and Common Reporting Standards (CRS) provisions, financial institutions, including mutual funds, are required to undertake a due diligence process to identify foreign reportable accounts and collect such information as required under the said provisions and report the same to the US Internal Revenue Service/any other foreign government or to the Indian Govt / Tax Authorities for onward transmission to the concerned foreign authorities. 66 / 100 66. Which of these investors CANNOT do CASH investments in mutual funds up to a limit of Rs. 50,000? A) Investments made by a PIO (Person of Indian Origin) B) Investments made by resident Indian investors without PAN C) Investments made by Sole Proprietorship firm D) Investments made by minors Cash investments in mutual funds up to a limit of Rs. 50,000 are allowed for resident individuals, sole proprietorships, and minors investing through their guardians. However, investments made by a Person of Indian Origin (PIO) are not eligible for cash investments in mutual funds up to this limit. 67 / 100 67. When does the market price of close-end mutual fund scheme converge with the NAV price? A) It never converges B) Before the New Fund Offer C) Toward maturity D) During the New Fund Offer The market price of a close-end mutual fund scheme tends to converge with the NAV price toward maturity. Initially, during the New Fund Offer, the market price may differ from the NAV price due to demand and supply factors. However, over time, as the maturity date approaches, market forces tend to bring the market price closer to the NAV price. 68 / 100 68. The form for registering a change in the default bank account has to be signed _____ . A) by the first holder only B) by all the holders of the folio C) by all the holders of the bank account D) according to the mode of holding of the folio The form for registering a change in the default bank account has to be signed according to the mode of holding of the folio. 69 / 100 69. In case one of the joint holders dies, the units will ________ . A) Be transferred to the HUF of the deceased holder B) Be transferred to nominee/s C) Continue to be held by surviving joint holders In the event of the death of one of the joint holders of mutual fund units, the units will continue to be held by the surviving joint holders. The joint holding ensures that the ownership of the units is shared among the joint holders, and the surviving holders retain their ownership rights upon the death of one of the joint holders. 70 / 100 70. If an investor has to change his default account, he/she has to do it with ____ . A) AMFI B) The KYC Registration agency C) The mutual fund (AMC) directly D) Either KRA or AMFI If an investor wants to change their default bank account for mutual fund transactions, they need to communicate the change directly to the mutual fund (AMC). The investor can provide the new account details to the mutual fund and request them to update the default account for future transactions. 71 / 100 71. On what basis will the payment be made to an investor who claims his erstwhile unclaimed redemption amount within three years? A) The amount paid will be based on the average of the NAV at the time of original redemption and today’s NAV after accounting for income earned and penalty if any B) The amount paid will be based on the prevailing NAV after adding the income earned on the unclaimed profits C) The amount paid will be based on the NAV at the time of the original redemption plus income earned on the unclaimed amount and deducting any penalty on the same D) The amount paid will be based on the NAV at the time of the original redemption plus income earned on the unclaimed amount If the investor claims the erstwhile unclaimed redemption amount within three years, the payment will be based on the prevailing NAV at the time of claim, after adding the income earned on the unclaimed profits. 72 / 100 72. An investor purchases through a distributor 5000 units of a mutual fund scheme at an NAV of Rs 25. The current NAV of the scheme is Rs 43. What will be the trail commission for today if the trail commission rate is 1% per annum. A) Rs. 5.8904 B) Rs. 2150 C) Rs. 33.1854 D) Rs. 3.4246 Trail commission is always calculated on the current NAV. The current total value of investments in the above question is Rs. 43 X 5000 units = Rs. 2,15,000. Trail commission for the day = Current value X trail commission rate p.a./365 = 215000 X 1% / 365 days = 2150 / 365 = Rs. 5.8904 73 / 100 73. Which is the Source Scheme in a Systematic Transfer Plan? A) It is the scheme with the lower NAV B) It is the scheme from which funds are transferred C) It is the scheme with the higher NAV D) It is the scheme to which funds are transferred In a Systematic Transfer Plan (STP), the source scheme refers to the scheme from which funds are transferred to another scheme. The funds are systematically transferred from the source scheme to thetarget scheme at regular intervals as per the chosen transfer plan. Therefore, the source scheme is the one from which the funds are transferred. 74 / 100 74. Who is NOT authorized to attest the documents submitted for Know Your Customer compliance, in case originals are not produced at the time of KYC? A) Mutual Fund distributor B) Manager of a Scheduled Commercial Bank C) Notary Public D) Gazetted Officer In the KYC process, the supporting documents (identity and address proof) are verified with the original documents. Alternatively, the investor can provide a True Copy attested by a Notary Public, Gazetted Officer, or Manager of a Scheduled Commercial Bank. 75 / 100 75. An investor is interested in buying some units of a Close-ended fund after the NFO is over. How can he buy the same? A) He can buy the units from the mutual fund itself when they open the sale at periodic intervals as announced by the fund B) He can buy the units on the stock exchange from market makers appointed by the mutual fund C) He can buy the units on the stock exchange from other investors who were allotted the units and are interested in selling D) He cannot buy units of a close-ended fund In a close-ended fund, after the New Fund Offer (NFO) is over, the units can be bought on the stock exchange from other investors who were allotted the units and are interested in selling. The listing on the stock exchange provides liquidity for investors. 76 / 100 76. Identify the False statement/s. A) Valuation gains are ignored, but valuation losses need to be adjusted against the profits while calculating distributable surplus B) TheMark-to-market gains form a part of the distributable reserves in case of a mutual fund Income Distribution Cum Capital Withdrawal plan A) Both A and B are false B) Only A is false C) Only B is false Mark-to-market gains are on paper – they are not realized. They will be realized when those investments are sold. So these cannot be included in distributable reserves. Also, valuation gains are ignored, but valuation losses need to be adjusted against the profits while calculating distributable surplus. This conservative approach to calculating distributable reserves ensures that dividends are paid out of real and realized profits, after providing for all possible losses. 77 / 100 77. In which of the following case can a mutual fund charge the additional expense of 0.30 % of daily net assets of the scheme? A) When the new inflows from beyond top 25 cities is at least 30% of the gross new inflows B) When the new inflows from beyond top 15 cities is at least 20% of the gross new inflows C) When the new inflows from beyond top 30 cities is at least i) 30% of the gross new inflows in the scheme OR ii) 15% of the average AUM (Year To Date) of the scheme, whichever is higher D) When the new inflows from beyond top 30 cities is at least 10% of the gross new inflows In addition to the regular limits, the following expenses may be charged to the scheme: i. Brokerage and transaction cost which are incurred for the purpose of execution of trade up to 0.12 percent of trade value in case of cash market transactions and 0.05 percent of trade value in case of derivatives transactions. ii. If the new inflows from beyond top 30 cities are at least a) 30 percent of gross new inflows in the scheme or b) 15 percent of the average assets under management (year to date) of the scheme, whichever is higher, funds can charge the additional expense of up to 0.30 percent of the daily net assets of the scheme. 78 / 100 78. SEBI has regulations pertaining to restrictions on the investment policies of mutual fund schemes for ensuring that _____ . A) The scheme returns are better than the Nifty/Sensex B) The scheme returns are better than the benchmark returns C) The mutual scheme can improve their ratings over a period of time D) The mutual fund scheme has a minimum diversification as per the requirements SEBI has regulations in place to ensure that mutual fund schemes maintain a minimum level of diversification. This regulation helps mitigate risks by ensuring that funds are not excessively concentrated in a particular security or sector, thereby promoting diversification and risk management. 79 / 100 79. Investors who have not transacted during the previous ______ are known as dormant investors. A) 6 months B) 15 months C) 12 months D) 9 months Dormant means not active. Investors who have not transacted during the previous 6 months in a mutual fund are considered dormant investors. 80 / 100 80. Investments have to be made only through authorized signatories for investments by _______. A) Hindu Undivided Family (HUF) B) Non Resident Indians (NRI) C) Institutional investors D) High net worth individuals (HNI) Since institutional investors are not natural persons, authorized individuals invest on behalf of the institution. Authorization for the investing institution to invest is typically in the form of a Board Resolution. 81 / 100 81. Mrs. Neeta needs Rs. 5,00,000 in 3 years from now. The interest rate is 6%. By which formula can we calculate the amount that is required to be invested today to achieve the goal? A) 500000 / (1+0.06)^3 B) 500000 * (1- 0.06)^3 C) 500000 * (1+0.06)*3 The formula to calculate the present value required to achieve the goal is F / (1 + r)^n, where F is the future value (500000), r is the interest rate (6% p.a.), and n is the number of years (3). Therefore, the correct formula to calculate the amount required to be invested today is 500000 / (1+0.06)^3. 82 / 100 82. Identify the FALSE statement. 1. Arbitrage funds can invest in both Futures/Options (F&O) and cash markets 2. The only objective of an Arbitrage fund is to provide capital appreciation 3. Arbitrage funds have lower risk compared to Equity Funds A) Only 1 B) Both 2 and 3 C) Only 2 D) Both 1 and 3 Arbitrage funds can invest in both Futures/Options (F&O) and cash markets. However, the objective of an Arbitrage fund is not only to provide capital appreciation but also to take advantage of price inefficiencies in the market. While Arbitrage funds have lower risk compared to Equity Funds, it does not mean they have lower risk than all equity funds. 83 / 100 83. According to guidelines given by SEBI, every mutual fund scheme should have a minimum of ____ investors. A) 10 B) 25 C) 20 D) 50 Every mutual fund scheme/plan should have a minimum of 20 investors, and no single investor shall account for more than 25 percent of the corpus of the Scheme/Plan(s). 84 / 100 84. In the case of ________, the Net Asset Value has to be declared for up to 4 decimal points. A) Liquid Funds B) ELSS Funds C) Mid Cap and Small Cap Funds D) Aggressive Hybrid Funds Net Asset Value (NAV) is calculated up to 4 decimal places for index funds, liquid funds, and other debt funds. 85 / 100 85. From the below-mentioned entities associated with a mutual fund, who has to mandatorily contribute to the corpus of the mutual fund? A) The Custodians B) The Sponsors C) The Asset Management Company D) The Trustees The sponsors of a mutual fund scheme have to mandatorily contribute to the corpus of the mutual fund. The sponsors are the main individuals or entities behind the creation of the mutual fund and they provide the initial capital to establish the fund. 86 / 100 86. Long-term capital loss from an investment can be set off against _____ . A) short-term capital gain or long-term capital gain B) long-term capital gains only C) long-term capital loss cannot be set off D) short-term capital gains only As per the Income Tax Act, short-term capital loss is to be set off against short-term capital gain or long-term capital gain. Long-term capital loss can only be set off against long-term capital gain. Capital loss, short-term or long-term, cannot be set off against any other head of income (e.g. salaries). 87 / 100 87. On whom is the compliance requirement under Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) applicable? A) All financial institutions including mutual funds B) Only on those mutual funds who have foreign institutions as their sponsors C) Only on those mutual funds who are registered with a foreign agency D) Only Indian mutual funds To comply with the requirements of the Foreign Account Tax Compliance Act (FATCA) and Common Reporting Standards (CRS) provisions, financial institutions including mutual funds are required to undertake a due diligence process to identify foreign reportable accounts and collect the necessary information as required under the said provisions. They are then required to report the same to the US Internal Revenue Service/any other foreign government or to the Indian Tax Authorities for onward transmission to the concerned foreign authorities. 88 / 100 88. The additional Total Expense Ratio (TER) charged has to be credited back to the Mutual Fund in which of these situations? A) When the TER of the mutual fund exceeds the limit specified under the regulations B) All of the above C) When the inflows from beyond the top 30 cities are redeemed within a period of 1 year from the date of investment. D) When the performance of the mutual fund declines as compared to the previous year Mutual funds can charge an additional TER if the new inflows are from beyond the top 30 cities. However, the additional TER charged on inflows from beyond the top 30 cities shall be credited back to the scheme in case the said inflows are redeemed within a period of 1 year from the date of investment. 89 / 100 89. How can the fundamental attributes of a mutual fund scheme be changed? A) The fundamental attributes can be changed with the permission of SEBI and AMFI B) The fundamental attributes can be changed but this should be communicated to all the unit holders who should be provided an option to exit the scheme C) The fundamental attributes can be changed but only with the consent of 100 percent of unit holders D) The fundamental attributes cannot be changed The fundamental attributes of a mutual fund scheme can be changed, but this change should be communicated to all the unit holders. They should be provided an option to exit the scheme if they do not agree with the proposed changes. This ensures transparency and gives unit holders the opportunity to make informed decisions regarding their investments. 90 / 100 90. Calculate the Average holding period if the portfolio turnover ratio is 25 percent. A) 40 months B) 25 months C) 48 days D) 4 Years The average holding period can be calculated using the formula: Average Holding Period = 12 (months) / Portfolio Turnover Ratio. In this case, with a portfolio turnover ratio of 25 percent, the average holding period would be 12 / 0.25 = 48 months, which is equivalent to 4 years. 91 / 100 91. Identify the TRUE statement. A) While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an entry load, then the initial value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV minus Entry Load B) While calculatingscheme returns for an investor, if there is an exit load, then the later value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV minus Exit Load A) Both A and B are true B) Only B is true C) None of the above D) Only A is true While calculating scheme returns for an investor, if there is an exit load, the later value of the Net Asset Value (NAV) is taken as NAV minus Exit Load. Exit load is a fee charged to investors when they redeem their investment from the mutual fund scheme. The exit load reduces the sale value of the units, and thus, the later value of the NAV is considered for calculating the scheme returns. However, the initial value of the NAV is not adjusted for an entry load, as it is already accounted for at the time of investment. 92 / 100 92. Identify the information which is NOT included in the Statement of Additional Information (SAI). A) Rights of Unit-holders B) SIP returns of the schemes C) Transmission procedure D) Investment Valuation Norms The Statement of Additional Information (SAI) contains information about the mutual fund or AMC, including the rights of unit-holders, transmission procedures, and investment valuation norms. However, it does not include information about the SIP returns of the schemes, which can be found in the Mutual Fund Fact Sheet. 93 / 100 93. The minimum number of investors that a mutual fund scheme should have: A) 100 investors B) 20 investors C) 10 investors D) 50 investors A mutual fund scheme should have a minimum of 20 investors as per regulations. This requirement ensures that there is a sufficient number of investors in the scheme and promotes broad-based participation. 94 / 100 94. What is the maximum percentage of holding a single investor can have in a mutual fund scheme? A) 25% B) 10% C) 5% D) 20% A scheme/plan must have a minimum of 20 investors, and no single investor can account for more than 25% of the corpus of the scheme/plan. 95 / 100 95. The portfolio of a fund of funds consists of ______ . A) Equity securities only B) Debt securities only C) Units of other mutual fund schemes D) Money market securities only A ‘Fund Of Funds’ (FOF) is an investment strategy of holding a portfolio of other investment funds rather than investing directly in stocks, bonds, or other securities. An FOF Scheme primarily invests in the units of another Mutual Fund scheme. 96 / 100 96. Identify the true statement(s) – A) An Addendum must accompany the KIM B) Addendum is considered to be a part of the Scheme Related Documents A) Both A and B are true B) Only B is true C) Only A is true While the Scheme Information Document (SID), Statement of Additional Information (SAI), and Key Information Memorandum (KIM) need to be updated periodically, the interim changes are updated through the issuance of an Addendum. The Addendum is considered to be a part of the scheme-related documents and must accompany the KIM. 97 / 100 97. If a mutual fund enters into a transaction for the purchase or sale of securities with any of its associates, then the members of the Asset Management Company of the mutual fund have to ________ . A) Inform the mutual fund unitholders of the intent to undertake the transaction before it is done B) Justify the fairness of the transaction to the Board of Trustees C) Take the approval of the trustees before undertaking the transactions D) Make certain that the transaction happens at a price that is better than the closing market price As per the AMFI Code of Ethics for Mutual Funds, members shall submit to the Board of Trustees details of transactions with associates, justifying its fairness to the scheme. 98 / 100 98. Ms Shweta purchases through a distributor 5000 units of a mutual fund scheme at a NAV of Rs 30. The current NAV of the scheme is Rs 28. What will be the trail commission for today if the trail commission rate is 1% per annum? A) Rs. 13.8356 B) Rs. 26.7463 C) Rs. 3.8356 D) Rs. 7.2256 The trail commission is always calculated based on the current NAV. In this case, Ms Shweta purchased 5000 units at a NAV of Rs 30. The current NAV is Rs 28. The total value of her investment is 5000 units x Rs 28 = Rs 1,40,000. The trail commission for the day can be calculated as: Trail commission = Current value x Trail commission rate p.a. / 365 = Rs 1,40,000 x 1% / 365 = Rs 3.8356.