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    Analysing Banks & NBFCs

    Rohit Singh

    Mr. Chartist · SEBI RA

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    Almost every ratio taught so far was built for a company that buys raw material, makes something and sells it. A lender does not work that way. Its raw material is money, its product is money, and the borrowing on its balance sheet is not a warning sign — it is the business itself. That is why a screener ranking companies by debt-to-equity puts every bank in the country at the bottom, and why EV/EBITDA, the workhorse multiple for a manufacturer, cannot meaningfully be computed for one. This topic swaps that toolkit for the one that actually describes a lender: net interest margin, CASA, asset quality, credit cost, capital adequacy, return on assets and price-to-book.

    Why does a bank's balance sheet look upside down?

    A manufacturer borrows so it can buy machines and raw material. The loan is a means to an end, and the balance sheet says so: borrowings sit on the liabilities side as an obligation, plant and inventory sit on the assets side as the things that earn.

    For a lender, money is not the means. It is the raw material and the finished product at the same time. The deposit you place with a bank is the bank's liability, because it owes that money back to you on demand or on maturity. The loan it hands to a borrower is its asset, because the borrower owes that money to the bank and pays interest on it. The institution is a spread business: raise money at one rate, lend it at a higher rate, and carry the risk that some of what was lent does not come back.

    That inversion is not a curiosity. It changes what every line means. A jump in liabilities at a manufacturer is a jump in risk; a jump in deposits at a bank is more raw material, and usually a sign the franchise is working. A jump in assets at a manufacturer is usually capex; a jump in advances at a bank is more credit risk taken. Reading the Balance Sheet taught the manufacturer's version of this statement. Everything below re-teaches it for a lender.

    Deposit
    Money the public places with a bank. It is the bank's liability because it must be returned, and it is the cheapest raw material a lender can get.
    Advance
    A loan the bank has given out. It is the bank's asset because it produces interest income and is legally owed back.
    Spread
    The gap between the rate charged on advances and the rate paid on deposits and borrowings. Everything a lender earns before fees comes out of this gap.
    Interest-earning assets
    Advances plus investments in government and other securities — the whole asset base that actually generates interest, not just the loan book.

    Why do debt-to-equity and EV/EBITDA break for a lender?

    Debt-to-equity answers a real question about a manufacturer: how much of the business is funded by lenders who must be paid regardless of how trading goes. For a bank the same arithmetic carries no information. A bank is deliberately, structurally and legally leveraged — its own capital is a single-digit percentage of total assets, and if it were not, the business could not earn a worthwhile return on a spread of two or three percent. A screen that flags debt-to-equity above 2 as risky flags every lender in India, which tells you the screen is wrong, not that the sector is unanalysable.

    EV/EBITDA breaks harder. Enterprise value is market capitalisation plus net debt, on the logic that whoever buys the whole business inherits its borrowings and its cash. For a lender, borrowings are inventory. Adding the deposit base to market capitalisation produces a number that describes nothing at all. EBITDA is worse: interest for a bank is not a financing cost sitting below the operating line, it is simultaneously the largest revenue line and the largest cost line. Strip interest out of a bank's earnings and there is almost nothing left to look at.

    The same reasoning disposes of several other familiar tools. There is no gross margin, because there is no cost of goods sold. There is no cash conversion cycle in the sense taught in Working Capital & the Cash Conversion Cycle — no inventory days, no payable days. Free cash flow is not informative either, because a growing loan book consumes cash by design. A lender throwing off large free cash flow is usually shrinking.

    Note — If a stock app shows a bank with a debt-to-equity of 9 and an EV/EBITDA of 40, it has applied a manufacturer's template to a lender. Both numbers are arithmetically correct and both are meaningless.

    What is net interest income, and how is NIM calculated?

    A lender's top line splits in two. Interest earned comes from advances and from investments. Interest expended is paid out on deposits and on borrowings. The difference between them is net interest income, or NII — the rupee value of the spread. Alongside NII sits other income: fees on cards and accounts, commissions on distributing insurance and mutual funds, and treasury gains on the bond portfolio. Treasury gains in particular are volatile and depend on where bond yields moved during the quarter, so they are read separately from the core spread.

    NII on its own says nothing about efficiency, because a larger bank will always produce a larger number. Net interest margin fixes that by expressing NII against the average interest-earning assets that produced it. It is expressed on average interest-earning assets rather than on total assets or on the loan book alone, because a bank's investment portfolio also earns interest but its branches and fixed assets do not.

    Three things move NIM. The mix of the loan book, since unsecured personal and microfinance lending price far higher than home loans against property. The cost of funds, which is where CASA comes in. And the position in the rate cycle: a bank whose loans reprice faster than its deposits sees margin expand when rates rise and compress when they fall, while a bank funded with short-dated deposits and lending at long fixed rates experiences the reverse. Which way a particular lender runs is a fact about its own book, not a rule of the sector.

    Net Interest Income (NII) = Interest earned − Interest expended NIM = NII ÷ Average interest-earning assets
    • Interest earned — on advances plus on the investment book
    • Interest expended — on deposits plus on borrowings
    • Average interest-earning assets — usually the average of the opening and closing balances for the period
    • Illustrative: NII of ₹3,600 cr on average interest-earning assets of ₹1,20,000 cr gives a NIM of 3.0%

    Why is the CASA ratio the real competitive advantage in Indian banking?

    CASA stands for current account and savings account — the share of a bank's deposits sitting in its two cheapest buckets. Current accounts, used by businesses for daily settlement, pay no interest at all. Savings accounts pay a modest regulated-then-deregulated rate. Term deposits pay materially more, because the depositor is explicitly buying yield and is willing to lock the money up to get it.

    In Indian banking, CASA is the closest thing to the structural moat described in Economic Moats. It is built out of branch density in the right catchments, salary-account relationships with employers, cash-management mandates from corporates, and the plain inertia of a primary bank account that has every standing instruction attached to it. It is slow to build, which is why it is also slow to lose.

    The consequence runs through everything else. A bank funding 40% of its deposits through CASA and one funding a quarter of them that way are paying different prices for the same rupee. Across an entire book, that gap is the difference between a lender that can lend to the safest borrowers and still earn a spread, and a lender that has to reach further up the risk curve to earn the same margin. This is why funding cost and asset quality are connected rather than independent: an expensive liability base pushes a lender towards riskier lending, and the bill for that arrives years later as credit cost.

    CASA ratio = (Current account deposits + Savings account deposits) ÷ Total deposits
    • Illustrative: ₹52,000 cr of current and savings deposits against total deposits of ₹1,30,000 cr gives a CASA ratio of 40%
    • Read it alongside deposit growth — the ratio also rises when term deposits run off, which is not the same as winning new low-cost money

    How do you read a lender's asset quality?

    A loan stops being a performing asset when the borrower stops servicing it. Ninety days of overdue interest or principal is the standard classification trigger in Indian banking, at which point the loan becomes a non-performing asset and the bank must set aside a provision against it. Provisioning rises the longer an account stays bad and depends on whether it is secured.

    The headline number is the gross NPA ratio: bad loans as a percentage of the total loan book. The net NPA ratio strips out the provisions already made, so it answers a different question — how much of the damage is still uncovered by money the bank has already set aside. Provision coverage ratio expresses the same relationship from the other end: what share of the bad book is already provided for. A lender with high gross NPAs and high coverage has recognised its problem; a lender with low gross NPAs and thin coverage has less cushion for the next one.

    The stock numbers, though, are the least informative part of the disclosure. Watch the flows: slippages are fresh loans that turned bad in the quarter, upgrades and recoveries are accounts that came back, and write-offs are loans removed from the books entirely. Gross NPAs can fall for three completely different reasons — because slippages genuinely slowed, because bad loans were written off, or because the loan book grew fast enough to shrink the ratio while the rupee amount rose. Restructured or resolution-framework accounts are a fourth category: still performing on paper, on renegotiated terms, and worth tracking separately because a portion of them typically slips later.

    Gross NPA (GNPA)
    The full rupee value of loans classified as non-performing, before any provisions, as a percentage of gross advances. The size of the problem.
    Net NPA (NNPA)
    Gross NPAs minus the provisions already held against them. The part of the problem the bank has not yet absorbed into its accounts.
    Provision Coverage Ratio (PCR)
    Provisions held against bad loans divided by gross NPAs. How much of the recognised damage has already been paid for out of past profits.
    Slippage
    A performing loan turning non-performing during the period. A flow number, and the earliest of these figures to move.
    Write-off
    Removing a bad loan from the books. It reduces gross NPAs without any money being recovered, so it flatters the ratio while the loss is already taken.
    Restructured account
    A stressed loan whose terms were renegotiated so it stays classified as performing. Disclosed separately, and a source of future slippages.
    Gross NPA ratio = Gross NPAs ÷ Gross advances Net NPA ratio = (Gross NPAs − Provisions held) ÷ (Gross advances − Provisions held) PCR = Provisions held against NPAs ÷ Gross NPAs
    • Illustrative: gross NPAs of ₹2,500 cr on gross advances of ₹1,00,000 cr is a GNPA ratio of 2.5%
    • With ₹1,750 cr of provisions held, PCR is 70% and net NPAs are ₹750 cr on net advances of ₹98,250 cr — an NNPA ratio of roughly 0.8%

    What does credit cost capture that the NPA ratio misses?

    Gross NPA is a photograph of the balance sheet on one date. Credit cost is the video, and it runs through the profit and loss account. It is the provisioning charge plus write-offs taken during the period, expressed against average advances — in other words, what asset quality actually cost the shareholder this year.

    This is the number that connects the credit book to earnings. A lender's pre-provision operating profit can be perfectly stable while reported profit collapses, because everything happened in the provisioning line. Conversely, a quarter in which provisions are released or written back shows a profit jump that has nothing to do with the lending franchise getting better.

    Because credit cost is a flow and gross NPA is a stock, the two routinely move in different directions in the same quarter, and reading only one of them produces the wrong conclusion.

    Credit cost = (Provisions for bad loans + Write-offs during the period) ÷ Average advances
    • Illustrative: a provisioning charge of ₹800 cr against average advances of ₹1,00,000 cr is a credit cost of 0.8%
    • Read it per year, and read several years together — a single low year is normal in the early part of a credit cycle

    Example — A bank can report a flat gross NPA ratio while credit cost doubles. That happens when fresh slippages are being provided for and written off at roughly the pace at which they arrive: the stock of bad loans looks stable, and the entire damage is in the flow.

    What is capital adequacy, and why does a regulator set a floor?

    Capital adequacy ratio measures a lender's own capital against its risk-weighted assets. Risk weighting matters: a home loan secured against property and an unsecured personal loan of the same size do not consume the same amount of capital, because they do not carry the same probability of loss. Capital itself is split into tiers — Tier 1 is equity and reserves, the capital that absorbs losses while the bank keeps operating, and Tier 2 is subordinated instruments that absorb losses later in the queue.

    A regulator sets a floor because the people funding a bank are depositors, and a depositor is in no position to assess a loan book. A bank failure also does not stay contained; it moves through the payment system and through other lenders' exposures. So the RBI prescribes a minimum, expressed as a percentage of risk-weighted assets and set in the low double digits for commercial banks, with the exact floor differing by the type of institution and changing as regulation evolves. Read the current norm from the RBI rather than a figure quoted in an article, including this one.

    The practical consequence for an analyst is that capital is a growth constraint, not just a solvency test. Every additional rupee lent consumes capital. A bank operating close to the floor has only two options: slow lending, or raise equity. Raising equity dilutes existing shareholders, and if it is raised below book value it reduces book value per share. That is why a capital-raise announcement is a fundamental event for a lender and not merely a treasury one.

    CAR = (Tier 1 capital + Tier 2 capital) ÷ Risk-weighted assets
    • Tier 1 — equity and reserves, the first loss-absorbing layer
    • Tier 2 — subordinated debt and certain reserves, which absorb losses later
    • Risk-weighted assets — the asset book scaled by the risk weight prescribed for each exposure type

    Why is return on assets, not ROE, the primary return metric for a bank?

    Profitability & Return Ratios and DuPont Analysis established that ROE can be split into margin, asset turnover and an equity multiplier. For a lender, that third term does most of the work. A bank funds a very large asset base with a thin sliver of its own capital, so even a modest return on assets is multiplied into a respectable-looking return on equity.

    Take the illustrative lender used through this topic. Profit after tax of ₹1,800 cr on total assets of ₹1,50,000 cr is a return on assets of 1.2%. The same profit on equity of ₹12,000 cr is a return on equity of 15%. The entire gap between 1.2% and 15% is the balance sheet's gearing of roughly 12.5 times — not a single rupee of it is operating skill.

    That is the problem with reading ROE first for a lender. ROE can be lifted simply by running thinner capital, which is another way of saying it can be lifted by taking more risk, until the regulator or a credit cycle interrupts. ROA cannot be manufactured that way. It asks the only question about operating quality that survives leverage: for every ₹100 of assets carried, how much does the lender actually keep? Note that ROA is read on a completely different scale for a lender than for a manufacturer — a figure that would look feeble for a factory is a normal outcome for a bank, so compare it with the lender's own history and its peer set rather than against a cross-sector benchmark.

    ROE = ROA × (Total assets ÷ Equity)
    • Illustrative: ROA of 1.2% × leverage of 12.5 times = ROE of 15%
    • Because the multiplier is capped by capital regulation, ROA is the term management can actually influence

    Why are lenders valued on price-to-book instead of P/E?

    Valuation Ratios introduced P/E and P/B as general tools. For lenders the ranking between those two reverses, for two reasons.

    The first is that book value means more for a bank than for a manufacturer. A factory's assets are machines carried at historical cost less depreciation, a number that can drift far from what the machines are worth. A lender's assets are financial contracts, classified, provisioned and disclosed under a regulatory framework. Net worth is therefore a closer approximation of economic reality, and the price the market pays relative to it is a meaningful ratio.

    The second is that a lender's earnings are provisioning-dependent. How much to provide against a stressed account involves judgement about eventual recovery. A year of light provisioning inflates profit; a year of clean-up crushes it. A P/E computed on either year describes the provisioning cycle rather than the franchise. Book value absorbs the same events, but gradually.

    P/B is not read alone, though. What justifies one lender trading at a higher multiple of book than another is the return it sustainably earns on that book — which loops straight back to ROA, leverage and the cost of funds. Two banks with identical book value do not have identical value if one funds itself more cheaply and loses less on its lending. For NBFCs the same framework applies, with an additional layer of scepticism about how conservatively stress has been recognised, since the book is only as good as the provisioning policy behind it.

    Notice the blind-spot column. For a lender, the blind spot in P/E is provisioning policy — it can move reported earnings sharply in a single quarter while the underlying loan book barely changes.Four cards side by side. Each card names a multiple, shows its numerator over its denominator as a fraction, and states what that multiple leaves out. Price to earnings ignores debt. Price to book misses intangible assets. Enterprise value to EBITDA sits before capital spending, interest and tax. Price to sales says nothing about margin or cash.Every multiple leaves something outP / EPrice per shareEarnings per shareBLIND SPOTIgnores debt — leveragesits outside the ratio.P / BPrice per shareBook value per shareBLIND SPOTBook value misses brands,software and intangibles.EV / EBITDAEnterprise valueEBITDABLIND SPOTBefore capex, interest,tax and working capital.P / SPrice per shareSales per shareBLIND SPOTSales say nothing aboutmargin or cash.Illustrative. Read two multiples so one covers the other's blind spot — neither is a verdict on its own.
    Notice the blind-spot column. For a lender, the blind spot in P/E is provisioning policy — it can move reported earnings sharply in a single quarter while the underlying loan book barely changes.

    How does an NBFC differ from a bank?

    A non-banking financial company does the lending half of a bank's job without the deposit half. It has no savings-account franchise and therefore no CASA. It funds itself in wholesale markets instead: term loans from banks, non-convertible debentures, commercial paper, securitisation of its own loan pools, and external borrowings.

    That funding model has two consequences, and the second one is the dangerous one. First, the cost of funds is set by the market's current view of the NBFC and its credit rating rather than by a sticky retail base — when credit spreads widen, an NBFC's funding cost rises quickly and its margin compresses, often before anything has gone wrong with its borrowers. Second is asset-liability mismatch. Writing five-year vehicle loans funded partly with one-year borrowings means the lender must keep refinancing. In normal conditions this is routine and profitable, because short money is cheaper than long money. In a liquidity squeeze the refinancing window shuts, and the lender faces a payment it cannot make even while every one of its own borrowers is paying on time. That is how a lender can fail while remaining solvent on paper.

    Banks have two buffers an NBFC does not: a deposit base that does not run in normal conditions, and access to the central bank's liquidity windows as a regulated bank. This is why a system-wide liquidity event reaches NBFCs first and why NBFC valuations react to credit-market stress before bank valuations do.

    So an NBFC is read with everything above plus four additional disclosures: the asset-liability maturity statement and where the negative gaps sit, the funding mix by instrument and how concentrated it is, the share of short-term borrowings such as commercial paper, and the liquidity buffer — cash, liquid investments and undrawn bank lines — against the next few months of repayments. How to Read an Annual Report covers where those disclosures sit in the document.

    • No deposit franchise, so no CASA and no low-cost funding advantage to build
    • Cost of funds moves with market spreads and the credit rating, not with a retail base
    • Asset-liability mismatch: long-dated loans funded with shorter-dated borrowings creates refinancing risk
    • A liquidity squeeze can force default even when the loan book is performing
    • No access to central-bank liquidity windows on the terms a bank has
    • Often a narrower product focus — vehicles, gold, housing, microfinance — so segment concentration matters more

    Which metrics apply to a bank, an NBFC and a manufacturer?

    The table below is the practical summary of everything above: which measures transfer across the three business types, and which have to be replaced. The point of the middle two columns is not that lenders are harder to analyse — it is that a metric applied to the wrong business model produces a confident, precise, wrong answer.

    MeasureManufacturerBankNBFC
    Debt-to-equityCore solvency measureUninformative — leverage is the modelLevel uninformative; tenor and mix matter
    EV/EBITDAStandard multipleNot applicable — deposits are not net debtNot applicable — borrowings are inventory
    Top lineRevenue from sale of goodsInterest earned plus other incomeInterest earned plus fee income
    Core marginGross and operating marginNet interest marginNet interest margin and spread over cost of funds
    Funding cost driverRate on borrowingsCASA share and deposit pricingWholesale spreads and credit rating
    Asset qualityReceivable days, bad debtsGNPA, NNPA, PCR, slippages, credit costSame set, plus collection efficiency by product
    Regulatory capital floorNoneCAR prescribed by the RBICapital norms by NBFC category
    Primary return metricROCE, then ROEROA first, then ROEROA first, then ROE
    Usual valuation lensP/E and EV/EBITDAP/B read against sustainable return on equityP/B, with provisioning policy scrutinised
    Cash flow readingFCF = operating cash flow − capexNot meaningful; growth consumes cashNot meaningful; the liquidity buffer is read instead
    Dominant riskDemand and input costsThe credit cycleCredit cycle plus refinancing risk

    Why are lender earnings cyclical even when loan growth is not?

    Loan growth can look steady for years while a lender's earnings swing violently, because income and loss are separated in time. A loan written today produces interest income immediately. If it is going to go bad, it usually does so two to four years later. The cost of a lending mistake is booked long after the growth it produced has been celebrated.

    That lag is the whole shape of the credit cycle. In the easy phase, competition for lending is intense, underwriting standards loosen at the margin, credit costs are low because the loans that will fail have not aged yet, and reported returns look excellent. In the tightening phase, slippages rise, provisioning jumps, and profit falls far faster than the loan book does — often while the loan book is still growing.

    The reading discipline that follows is uncomfortable: the best-looking quarter in a credit cycle is the one with the lowest credit cost, and that is also the quarter in which newly written risk is hardest to see. Growth Analysis & CAGR made the general point that the path matters more than the endpoints. For a lender the path is the credit cycle, and a five-year CAGR that happens to span only the easy phase describes a phase, not a business.

    Watch out — Loan growth far above the system average in a product the lender is new to is the most reliable early signal of a future credit-cost spike, and it is visible years before any losses appear. Compare growth segment by segment against what management says it changed in underwriting — a book growing much faster than the market is usually winning on price or on standards.

    Key points

    For a lender, deposits are liabilities and loans are assets — the balance sheet is inverted, so debt-to-equity and EV/EBITDA describe nothing.
    Net interest income is the rupee spread; NIM expresses it against average interest-earning assets.
    CASA is the price of the raw material — a cheaper funding base lets a lender earn the same margin while taking less risk.
    Gross NPA is a stock and credit cost is a flow, which is why the two often move in opposite directions in the same quarter.
    Provision coverage says how much of the recognised damage has already been paid for out of past profits.
    Capital adequacy is both a solvency floor and a growth constraint — a lender near the floor must slow lending or raise equity.
    ROA measures operating skill; ROE is simply ROA multiplied by regulated leverage.
    An NBFC carries a bank's credit risk without a deposit franchise, which adds refinancing risk on top of it.
    Formula
    Net Interest Margin (NIM) = (Interest earned − Interest expended) ÷ Average interest-earning assets

    Example — Take Sahyadri Bank Ltd — all figures illustrative, not a real bank. It earns ₹9,000 cr of interest and pays out ₹5,400 cr, so net interest income is ₹3,600 cr; against average interest-earning assets of ₹1,20,000 cr that is a NIM of 3.0%. Deposits are ₹1,30,000 cr, of which ₹52,000 cr sit in current and savings accounts — a CASA ratio of 40%. Gross advances are ₹1,00,000 cr with gross NPAs of ₹2,500 cr, so the GNPA ratio is 2.5%; provisions of ₹1,750 cr are held against them, giving a PCR of 70% and net NPAs of ₹750 cr on net advances of ₹98,250 cr, an NNPA ratio of roughly 0.8%. The provisioning charge for the year is ₹800 cr, a credit cost of 0.8% of advances. Profit after tax is ₹1,800 cr, which on total assets of ₹1,50,000 cr is an ROA of 1.2% and on equity of ₹12,000 cr is an ROE of 15%. The arithmetic closes: 1.2% multiplied by leverage of 12.5 times is exactly the 15% ROE, so the entire difference between the two return figures is gearing.

    Pro tip — Read a lender's investor presentation in this order: funding mix and cost of funds, then NIM, then slippages and credit cost, then capital adequacy, and only then the profit number. Profit is the output of those four inputs — reading it first tells you what happened without telling you why, and the inputs are what determine the next few quarters.

    Warning — A falling gross NPA ratio is not automatically an improvement. It falls when bad loans are written off, when the loan book grows fast enough to dilute the numerator, and when stressed accounts are restructured instead of classified. Check it against slippages, write-offs, provision coverage and the growth rate of advances before treating it as a clean-up.

    Frequently asked questions

    How do you calculate net interest margin (NIM)?

    Subtract interest expended from interest earned to get net interest income, then divide that by average interest-earning assets for the period. Average interest-earning assets is normally the average of the opening and closing balances of advances plus investments. On an illustrative NII of ₹3,600 cr and average interest-earning assets of ₹1,20,000 cr, NIM works out to 3.0%.

    Why can't you use debt-to-equity or EV/EBITDA for a bank?

    Because both assume borrowing is a financing choice rather than the product. A bank's deposits are its raw material, so its leverage ratio simply restates the business model instead of measuring risk. EV/EBITDA fails for the same reason plus one more: interest is a bank's largest revenue line and largest cost line, so stripping it out leaves nothing meaningful to value.

    GNPA vs NNPA — what is the difference?

    Gross NPA is the total value of loans classified as non-performing, expressed against gross advances — it sizes the problem. Net NPA subtracts the provisions already held against those loans, so it measures the part of the problem still uncovered. A wide gap between the two means the lender has already absorbed most of the damage through past profits, which is the same thing the provision coverage ratio measures from the other direction.

    What is a good CASA ratio for an Indian bank?

    There is no universal threshold, and any single number quoted as a benchmark ages badly. A higher CASA share structurally lowers the cost of funds, which is why it is treated as a competitive advantage, but it is read against the bank's own history and a comparable peer group rather than against a fixed figure. Note also that the ratio can rise simply because term deposits ran off, so read it alongside total deposit growth.

    Bank vs NBFC — what actually changes in the analysis?

    The credit-side analysis is largely the same: NIM, slippages, provision coverage and credit cost apply to both. The funding side is where they diverge. A bank has deposits, a CASA franchise and access to central-bank liquidity; an NBFC borrows in wholesale markets, so its cost of funds moves with credit spreads and its asset-liability maturity profile creates refinancing risk that a bank largely does not carry.

    Why are banks valued on price-to-book rather than P/E?

    A lender's assets are financial contracts carried under a regulatory classification and provisioning framework, so book value is a reasonably faithful measure of net worth. Its earnings, by contrast, depend on provisioning judgement and can swing sharply in a single quarter without the underlying loan book changing much. P/B is therefore the steadier lens, and it is read alongside the return the lender sustainably earns on that book.

    What is credit cost, and how is it different from provisions on the balance sheet?

    Credit cost is the provisioning charge plus write-offs taken through the profit and loss account during a period, expressed against average advances — a flow. Provisions held on the balance sheet are the accumulated stock of everything set aside so far. The first tells you what asset quality cost shareholders this year; the second tells you how much cushion exists against the bad loans already recognised.